vS 'b tOl · lo/S: Se> 4/3 B\SON >V .. ij SOLDIER'S GUIDE STATE UNIVERSITY OF NEW YORK AT BUFFALO OCT 25 l~Rq DOCUMENTS DEPOSITORY LIBRARY 0433 3~0TH MILITARY INTELLIGENCE BRIGADE (LINGUIST) ': 8 t <..:., ,..-., ·... ' .. ~ '· .' . Soldier's Guide introductory letter 1. I take great pride in the outstanding achievements of this brigade. This organization has established a reputation and a tradition that has placed us on the forefront among the reserve and.active components. 2. None of it would have been possible if there was not a strong commitment to professionalism by all members of this organization. Our soldiers have consistently demonstrated their proficiency in their languages and in their occupational specialties. Not wanting to rest on our laurels, the 300th publishes this Soldier's Guide with the intent of continuing building upon an already solid fou~dation. I 3. This guide is dedicated to all soldiers who have brought us to the:top, sharing a position with the best in the military. And to thelpresent and future members of this great team, this guide is presented to you as a key to open new doors of opportunity and achievement in your professional career. I I HISTORY OF THE 300TH MILITARY INTELLIGENCE BRIGADE (LINGUIST) The 300th Military Intelligence Linguist Brigade is an army organization within the National Guard system which is unique in the United States Army. This uniqueness has contributed to the overall effectiveness of a total army concept, specifically to the ever present need throughout the world for trained army linguists. Initially, the 300th Military Intelligence Brigade (L) was organized as an intelligence company made up of qualified interrogators, analysts, translators and editors. This organization was effected in February of 1960 with a total unit strength of fifty-four service members: it was the 142d Mi 1 i tary Intelligence Linguist Company, located in Salt Lake City, Utah. The growth from this initial organization to the present has dictated a number of reorganizations. On 1 April 1980, in the 20th year of existence, the unit was organized as a battalion. The 142d Military Intelligence Battalion's organization consisted of a headquarters e 1 ement with three 1 i ne companies, a 11 1ocated in Utah. Then, on 1 April 1988, another reorganization took place and the 300th became a reality and the headquarters element of the 142d became the 300th's new leadership. Another commander and staff were appointed to lead the 142d and the 141st was organized on that same date. The projected growth of the 300th beyond Utah's borders started becoming reality with the organization of several battalions in 1989: the 341st in Washington, the 260th in Florida, the 415th in Louisiana, the 223rd in California, and Company A of the 368th in Hawaii. The strength of the brigade resides within each line company. Ninety percent of the personnel have been trained in a specific 1anguage. This training, for most i nd i vi dua1 s except those who have been trained at DLI, has consisted of living and working in a non-English environment for periods of two or more years. Therefore, the majority of unit members having lived and worked on a day-to-day basis with economics, history, culture and the people, provides a broad base from which to build a solid military intelligence linguist unit. The language skills of this unit are unexcelled in the United States Army. Another strength of this unit is the above-average military service commitment. Approximately eighty percent of the men within the unit have completed their six-year military obligation. The average age of a unit member is 26. This age level has influenced many intelligent and purposeful decisions affecting not only each member, but also the overall direction of the brigade. The soldiers in this unit are members because of the pride they have in belonging to the unit and their commitment to defend the United States of America. They exemplify the tenets placed by the National Guard's "Pride in Ownership" program. The civilian education of·unit personnel is very high. Many individuals not only hold a bachelor degree from a university, but a 1 so have master and doctorate degrees. The majority of the remaining personnel are pursuing various programs of higher education. This level of education and sense of professionalism have produced extremely competent and motivated soldiers. Department of the Army, FORSCOM, INSCOM, National Guard Bureau, and other commands and government agencies and department have provided a number of mission-related programs to utilize unit linguists in a variety of roles with specific assignments in Germany, Japan, Korea, Norway, France, Egypt, and other foreign countries as well as in the United States. These programs have been of great value to the training of the unit. The general mission of 142D Company had been interrogation. Due to a lack of prisoner-of-war play and trained linguists on active duty, the 142D became involved in all facets of intelligence work. Some of these experiences are as follows: working in the division TOC on the intelligence situation map; delivering intelligence information to an attached allied unit during a NATO exercise in Western Europe; scanning Chinese newspapers at an intelligence installation in Tokyo for current order of battle information; and working with the United States Military Liaison Mission in Berlin. The lack of prisoner-of-war play did not hinder the unit's role, but rather rounded out a much needed general intelligence education. Moreover, the unit later received a counter-intelligence mission for language sections which relate to friendly and allied missions. More recently, SIGINT became the latest addition to the Brigade's worldwide mission. In the National Guard there is much emphasis placed on recruiting and retaining soldiers. Without meaningful training a soldier in the National Guard exits the system. Meaningful training is the key to retention and being able to successfully complete a mission whether in a peacetime role or on the battlefield. The 300th has been very successful in recruiting and retaining soldiers and in accomplishing all missions because of its excellent training program. The 300th has provided varied and diverse services to units in the Army system. These services have consisted of such tasks as assisting a division commander in his initial meeting with a local mayor, working on a briefing to be presented in the host country's language by the visiting commander, and helping a soldier shop to find a bargain for his girlfriend. It also has involved 2 been in the field working with their MOSs, as,well as translation and interpretation functions at Army Chief of Staff level. The 300th personnel have recognized the need and have felt the appreciation for their services. The unit has received many awards for its work. Our striving for excellence in training has been recognized with several Eisenhower Awards and 6th Army Awards. A particularly unique example of the work of the unit is the service provided on short notice in support of the Fourth Mechanized Infantry Division at Fort Carson. In June of 1978, Fort Carson received visits from two dignitaries:. the Minister of Defense of Japan with his aides, and the Minister of Defense of Korea with his aides. Neither of the gentlemen spoke English. Therefore, when the Fourth Mechanized Infantry Division learned of the pending visits, it also realized that it had a serious problem because it had no linguists that could translate for the dignitaries. The problem was where could the division commander, on short notice, find linguists with military knowledge and background who could translate the division's briefing and interpret for the dignitaries and their parties as they toured the post? The answer was, of course, what was then the 142D Company. Consequently, the division commander immediately requested assistance from the 142D. The 142D was able to respond immediately to the division commander's request for assistance. Within three days, personnel from the 142D were at Fort Carson preparing for the mission. They translated the briefings into Japanese and Korean, prepared written texts in Japanese and Korean, and studied relevant background material to enable them to answer the questions of the dignitaries. The division commander was able to successfully brief and entertain the dignitaries as a result of the support of the 142D. In spite of c i vi 1ian ob1i gations and short notice, the personne1 of 142D able to provide the services needed by the division commander. were This is but one of many examples of the support provided by the brigade. There are many more examples, almost on a weekly basis, of such important services rendered by the brigade. The 300th is an outstanding organization with an even more outstanding future ahead of it. 3 BRIGADE PATCH AND CREST On the cover of this study guide there are reproductions of the brigade's patch and crest. The official descriptions and symbolisms are as follows: SHOULDER SLEEVE INSIGNIA Description On an oriental blue rectangle arched at top and bottom with a 1/8 inch black border two inches. in width and three inches in height overall, a diagonally crossed white quill and black dagger between four silver gray stylized arrows issuing from each side. Symbolism The colorss oriental blue and silver gray are traditionally associated with U.S. Army Military Intelligence. The arrows allude to global service and int~lligence from all sources. The qui 1 1 refers: to research and the study of 1anguages; the dagger symbo 1 i zes the covert and mi 1 i tary aspects of the unit's mission. UNIT CREST Description A gold color metal and enamel device 1 1/8 inches in heightoverall consisting of a gold square, one point up with each point forming a stylized arrow bearing a gray scroll surmounted by a cr6ssed gold quill and dagger, all surrounded by a gold wreath ahd enclosed at top and bottom by an oriental blue scrol 1 inscribed "EXCELLENCE" above and "IN LANGUAGE" below in gold letters~ SYMBOLISM The colors oriental blue and silver gray are traditionally associated with U.S. Army Intelligence. The scroll and quill a 1 1 ude to research and the study of 1anguages. The four arrows, pointing outward, refer to the global service of the unit and the processing of information. The gold wreath symbolizes the 1 U~it's goal of continued excellence and achievement. 4 THE BATTALIONS' UNIT CRESTS: 142D Military Intelligence Battalion (Linguist) Description A silver color metal and enamel device 1 1/8 inches in width overall consisting of a black vertical dagger with point upon a silver beehive with blue details, all on a silver scroll inscribed in base "INTO ALL THE WORLD" in black letters; issuing from the scro11 ends two bunches of s i 1ver sego 1i 1i es. Symbolism Silver and oriental blue are the colors traditionally associated with the Military Intelligence Branch. The dagger symbo1 i zes mi 1 i tary preparedness and the g1obe and motto represent world-wide capabilities and responsibilities of the unit. The beehive and sego lilies are symbols associated with Utah and reflect the unit's location in that state. BATTALION FLAG An oriental blue flag, 3 feet hoist by 4 feet fly, trimmed on three sides with silver gray fringe, 2 1/2 inches in width, on which is centered the distinctive unit insignia of the Battalion in proper colors, 20 inches in height, above a silver gray arched scroll inscribed "142D MILITARY INTELLIGENCE" in oriental blue letters. The other battalions' crests were in process of being designed at the time this manual went to press. 5 MILITARY INTELLIGENCE Although the Military Intelligence Branch is one of the newest branches of the active United States Army, military intelligencehas a history which dates back to the beginning of human conflict. It is evident that foreknowledge of the enemy, or a potentia1 enemy, is of the greatest value to a government and its militarycommanders in making sound decisions for the conduct of state affairs and military operations. Military Intelligence is a basic branch and a combat support arm of the Army. Military Intelligence officers are primarilyconcerned with the i nte11 i gence aspects of the Army's mission. This field of activity encompasses intelligence, counterintelligence, cryptologic and signal intelligence, security,order of battle, interrogation, aerial surveillance, imageryinterpretation and all related planning, organization, training and operations. Intelligence officers are assigned to both branch material and branch immaterial positions within all Army, joint and combined commands and staffs. The United States up to and including World War I found its Army ill-prepared in' all fields of military intelligence, due to the lack of consistent policy of planning and coordination in this field. Out of expediency, and from a small information division under the Adjutant General, which was actually the first so-called departmental intelligence agency, there eventually evolved in June,1918, a more realistic agency, called the Military IntelligenceDivision under the then reorganized War Department General Staff. In this same period, official recognition was given to the counterintelligence aspect by defining and organizing intelligenceinto two classes: positive and negative. Subsequently, with the signing of the Armistice, certain peacetime events took place, such as reorganization of the General Staff, government economies and pressures from pacifist and isolation groups, all of which adversely affected the prestige of. intelligence and severelycurtailed training. 'The Corps of Intelligence Police which had been organized and trained in France in 1917 was reduced to a mere handful, and counterintelligence training was discontinued completely. · It was not until World War II. that military intelligence, due to excellent staff planning and coordination, began to take on a broad range and professional nature which characterizes this field today. The Military Intelligence Service was organized in this early period of the war, and it began to gather specialists in intelligence and intelligence-related areas. Among these were 1 i ngu i sts, 1anguage and area students , 1 professiona 1 investigators,geographers, economic and technologic~l experts, world travelers, and editors. Counter-intelligence t~aining was reconstituted in 6 February, 1941, and the official designation of the organization became the Counter-Intelligence Corps in 1942. The Signal Security Agency was created in 1943 under the Chief Signal Officer, and it assumed the responsibilities and performed the functions formerly carried on by the Signal Intelligence Service. In September, 1945, the u.s. Army Security Agency (USASA) was created and placed under the direction of the Assistant Chief of Staff, G2, Intelligence, Department of the Army. It was redesignated as a major field command of the Department of the Army in 1964, and is now known as the u.s. Army Intelligence and Security Command (INSCOM). In June, 1962, the Military Intelligence Branch, composed of ASA, Intelligence Corps, and strategic and combat intelligence officers, was formalized to meet the growing requirements for control and career guidance of the increasing numbers of officers in the intelligence field. It was designated as Army Intelligence and Security Branch. In July, 1967, the Army Intelligence and Security Branch was redesignated the Military Intelligence Branch, and its mission was changed from combat service support to combat support. On 4 December, 1981 , President Rona1d Reagan stated, "I again want to express my respect and admiration for the men and women of our Intelligence Community: They run the risks; they bear the They cannot fully be thanked in tensions; they serve in silence. public, but I want them to know that their job is vital and that the American people and their President, are profoundly grateful for what they do." MILITARY INTELLIGENCE INSIGNIA The symbol ism of the Mi 1itary Intel 1igence Insignia is as follows: "A symbolic sun, patterned after that of the mythical Helios, god of the sun, who could see and hear everything, provides the base for the Military Intelligence design. The sun's rays indicate the world-wide mission of the branch, the superimposed rose revives the ancient symbo1 of secrecy, and the parti a 11y concealed dagger reminds of the aggressiveness, protection, and element of physical danger inherent to branch operations. 7 THE INTELLIGENCE CHALLENGE Intelligence has but one function -to enable the commander to apply his combat power with assurance and minimal loss of life and to achieve success in battle. Intelligence personnel must focus on reducing battlefield uncertainty ... uncertainty of the enemy,weather and terrain, and ourselves is the fog of war--it reduces command initiative and increases command vulnerability. It is the intelligence challenge to penetrate this fog, enable the commander to see the battlefield with certainty, and win. THE MILITARY INTELLIGENCE SOLDIER'S CREED I am a soldier first, but an Intelligence Professional second to none. With pride in my heritage, b~t focused on the future. Performing the first task o~ an army; To find, know and never Lose the enemy. I With a sense of urgency and of tenacity, Profe~sional and physical f~tness, And above all: Integrity--for in truth Lies victory. Always at silent war while Ready for a shooting war; I The s~lent warrior of the A~my team. 8 UNITED STATES ARMY INTELLIGENCE AND SECURITY COMMAND (INSCOM) The U.S. Army Intelligence and Security Command (INSCOM) was activated on 1 January, 1977, as a result of the Intelligence Organization and Stationing Study, which the Army Chief of Staff had directed to improve i nte11 i gence activities. The Command combines certain assets of the U.S. Army F9rces Command, and the Assistant Chief of Staff for Intelligence, Department of the Army. On 1 October of that same year, now observed as INSCOM Organization Day, the functional realignment of these intelligence assets was completed. INSCOM'S mission is to provide multi-disciplinary intelligence, security and electronic warfare operations for the Army at eche 1ons above corps ( EAC) in war and peace, and be prepared to respond to tasking as needed and/or as directed by the Department of the Army in order to contribute to deterring war, warning of impending war, and winning the war. To accomplish this mission, INSCOM employs more than 13,000 military and civilian personnel. Its direction comes from national authorities and the Army Assistant Chief of Staff for i nte11 i gence. Headquarters elements of INSCOM are presently located at two sites, Arlington Hall Station, Arlington, Virginia and Fort Meade, Maryland. INSCOM has single and multi-disciplined brigades. The single disciplined Military Intelligence (MI) Brigades perform singular functions pertaining to segments of electronic warfare, such as counterintelligence and operations security support, offensive counterintelligence operations, and other aspects of security. The multi-discipline MI Brigades have resources such as counterintelligence, operations security support and signals security support units. There are MI Brigades in Panama, Korea, Germany, Japan, and the United States. Field Stations are located in Germany, Japan, Korea, Panama, Turkey, and the United States. In addition to the MI Brigades and the Field Stations, there are the INSCOM Theater Intelligence Center-Pacific in Hawaii; the Intelligence and Threat Analysis Center at Arlington Hall Station, Virginia; and the u.s. Army Russian Institute in Garmisch, Germany. INSCOM's Intelligence and Threat Analysis Center at Arlington Hall Station analyzes, produces and disseminates allexploitation for Headquarters, Department of the Army, and for major commands in support of combat operations, planning, training, and material and combat development activities. 9 CREED OF THE NONCOMMISSIONED OFFICER No man is more professional than I. I am a noncommissioned officer, a leader of men. As a noncommissioned officer, I realize that I am a member of a time honored corps, which is known as the "Backbone of the Army". I am proud of the corps of noncommissioned officers and will at all times conduct myself so as to bring credit upon the corps, the military service, and my Country, regardlessof the situation in which I find myself. I will not use my grade or position to attain pleasure, profit, or personal safety. Competence is my watch-word. My two basic responsibilitieswill always be uppermost in my mind--accomplishment of my mission and the welfare of my men. I will strive to remain tactically and technically proficient. I am aware of my role as a noncommissioned officer. I will fulfill my responsibilities inherent in that role. All soldiers are entitled to outstanding leadership; I will providethat leadership. I know my men and I will always place their needs above my own. I wi 11 communicate consistently with my men and never leave them uninformed. I wi 11 be fair and impartial when recommending both rewards and punishment. Officers of my unit will have maximum time to accomplish their duties. They will not have to accomplish mine. I will earn their respect and confidence as well as that of my men. I will be loyal to those with whom I serve; seniors, peers and subordinates alike. I wi 11 exercise initiative by taking appropriate action in the absence of orders. I will not compromise my integrity, nor mymoral courage. I will not forget, nor will I allow my comrades to forget that we are professional, noncommissioned officers. LEADERS OF MEN! (Obtained from the School of Infantry, Fort Benning, GA.) PROFESSIONAL MILITARY CONDUCT FOR NONCOMMISSIONED OFFICERS Military discipline is that quality which distinguishessoldiers in the Army from a disorganized group of factory workers. Noncommissioned officers cannot expect to have discipline in their units unless they, themselves, are self-disciplined and set the example. Many actions which they should or should not take are not specifically covered byregulations or standard publications on the military way of life. Many of these "do's and don'ts" are picked up during basic training days or are passed on by word of mouth from older members of the service. Others are based on common sense and good 10 breeding. Although unwritten, they have become law by tradition or custom. Proper observance of these principles marks the well disciplined leader. While not intended to be complete, the following information points out those traditions or customs that are most common 1y overlooked or violated. Although this information was written primarily for noncommissioned officers, most of it is equally applicable to the lower grades. In essence, these traditions and customs should govern not only professional relationships within the noncommissioned corps, but should govern relationships between individual noncommissioned officers and soldiers of the lower grades. Leadership-Discipline-Human Relationship: There is 1ittle that seems humane about treatment received in the early stages of basic training. Discipline must be taught first before good human relations may be practiced. "Buddy-buddy" human relations cannot be used as a substitute for discipline in order to have the leader's command accomplished by the subordinates. The practice of human relations can only come after good discipline has been attained. Deference in Automobiles: The senior sits on the right in the back seat. The senior is the last to enter and first to leave the automobile. When asked to join a senior who is already seated, the junior enters through the left door. The junior does not crawl over the senior's feet. Walking in Step: Personnel in uniform are expected to walk in step. The junior always walks on the left and never lopes along out of step. The attempt to adjust their stride to that of the senior will always be met halfway. Lead the Way: When escorting a senior or an inspector through an activity, the noncommissioned officer must always lead the way. The visitor is not expected to be familiar with the area and could easily turn into a dirty closet which would be the last thing a noncommissioned officer would want a visitor to see. Punctuality: Lateness in keeping an appointment certainly shows a noncommissioned officer in a most unfavorable light to seniors. Nickname: When discussing a subordinate with a senior, the noncommissioned officer should always refer to the subordinate by rank and last name. The senior may not know who "good old Joe" is and may not properly understand the discussion. Guessing a Name: When meeting a person one has not seen for a while, one should always give his name, rank and location of previous-re1ati onsh i p. Guessing games cause nothing but 1 1 embarrassment and the potentia1 1oss of a friend. The same principle applies to those who expect voice recognition over the telephone without announcing their names to the person called. Foul Language: There are no circumstances which are improvedby the use of obscenity, foulness, or filth. Normally, this is indicative of arrested mental development or limited vocabulary. Entrance of a Senior Officer Into a Room: When a senior officer enters a room where other military personnel are in conference or merely sitting position, everyone should immediately stand. Normally, this is a perfunctory gesture seldom if ever accomplished since senior officers, while pleased to accept such recognition of their rank, pride themselves on anticipation of it in such a manner as to minimize its duration. In most cases, the instruction to "be seated" is given before most of the assembled personnel can get to their feet. The same procedure in reverse is carried out when the senior departs. This procedure is onlyfollowed if the last entrant is senior to everyone else in the room. Cues may be taken from the officer conducting the conference or the officer you know to be senior in the room. The action of the senior officer in the room should be followed by all subordinates. Of course, it goes without saying that noncommissioned officers seated at their desks always come to their feet when an officer enters their office and addresses them. After the conversation has been started and the officer is seated, it is permissible for the noncommissioned ~fficers to resume the.ir seats. Excuse: Servility, apple-poli~hing and constant recourse to the unsought-for excuse brands a weak 1 i ng afraid to accept the blame for failure or without the in~estinal fortitude to stand on his own decisions. Characteristics such as these are alien to the basic concept of what the noncommissioned officer represents. Undermining an Order: True noncommissioned officers cannot resort to the constant use of a superior's name to assign or accomplish a task delegated to them. Private disagreement cannot be communicated in any sense without largely defeating or negatingthe order. Public disagreement cannot be tolerated. To attribute all that is bad to the senior and take credit only for that which is popular with subordinates, estab~ishes serious doubt as to the moral courage of the noncommissiohed officers exercising this behavior. Lounging in Uniform in Public: Either walk, stand, or sit. Do not drape around a handy post, pole, waste can, or hydrant.Lounges and bedrooms are provided for the succor of those who do not possess the phys i ca1 stamina to withstand such a grue11 i ng endurance test. Phone Dangling: Noncommissioned officers must never leave a 12 senior waiting at the other end of a telephone line without first requesting the permission of the senior. If cal led by a senior and asked for information which the noncommissioned officer may not have readily available, the noncommissioned officer must not leave the phone to get it without first inquiring if the senior wishes to wait for the information or wishes to be called back at a later time. The senior may not have the time to wait on the telephone while the information is obtained. Maintain that Barrier: It is a genuine compliment to the rapport noncommissioned officer to be able to establish such close that his senior can relax in his presence during off-duty hours. The extent of the informality and relaxation must always be governed by the senior. Off-duty informality cannot be extended into the next official day if the noncommissioned officers desire to continue to enjoy such informal relaxation off duty. Rank Has Its Privileges: No noncommissioned officer can resent privileges extended to his seniors. Privileges are always sharply equated to rank. Entitlement to have and to enjoy them is the military way of recognizing those who have worked up from the bottom to the top. These are not gratuitous gifts, but they are rewards justly earned by advancement through demonstrated ability. Official Statements: The noncommissioned officer must always consider that "your word is your bond" and will be accepted at face value. Knowingly making a false official statement orally or in writing constitutes a serious crime and brands the offender as one who has dishonore~ his entire corps. Phrasing an Order: The stated wish or desire of a effect of noncommissioned officer to a subordinate has the full an order. There is no such thing as a "direct or communicating indirect" order. An order is an order. S i nee obedience must be rendered in any case, it is best for the noncommissioned officer to choose diplomatic words which clearly communicate the directive are instead of constantly using words such as "I order you," which harsh. The practice will result in a larger vocabulary for the NCO and far more effective results with the subordinates. Manner of Address: Use of the word "Sir" is never out of place in the military in addressing an officer. It is simply the verbal recognition a noncommissioned officer renders the rank of an officer. Junior officers, of course, use it in addressing their superiors. NCO's do not use the term in addressing each other. "Sir" is most commonly used at the beginning or end of a communication to an officer. Courtesy is appreciated by all a great officers and makes their jobs easier to perform. It sets example for members of the lower ranks. Departing before the Senior Officer: Noncommissioned officers attending a social gathering at which officers are present should 13 remain until the senior officer has departed. If it becomes imperative for an NCO to depart before the senior officer,permission to do so is requested as a deference to his grade and position. Naturally, such a request will be handled in a polite manner. Leaning on Desks: An NCO does not lean on his senior's desk, nor does he permit subordinates to lean on his desk. If tired,permission to sit down should be requested. Running Commentary: After an NCO has presented a paper to his senior to read, he should remain quiet until the senior has had the opportunity to read the paper. As good as a senior maybe, he cannot read a paper intelligently if constantly distracted with comments by the subordinate. Smoking: A noncommissioned officer must never smoke when entering his senior's office. An NCO should not smoke in the senior's office unless the senior has given permission for the NCO to smoke. Moreover, an NCO should be aware that state statutes now prevent smoking in most buildings and that the Army discouragessmoking because of the health risks. Smoking is a very dangerous habit. A Visit by the Boss: An NCO should always feel highly complimented when his boss takes the time to visit his office or work area. However, he must never assume that the boss has the time for socializing after he is finished with his business. If the boss has time for socializing, he will indicate the opportunityfor conversation. If he does not, it should be obvious that he has more pressing responsibilities. A senior should also respect the responsibilities of a subordinate and be aware of the subordinate's time pressures. Bore: An exce11 ent way to become unpopu 1ar is to hog the conversation and tell long, pointless stories. A more certain wayto gain this reputation is to take the time of others at official gatherings by trying to solve or address problems which are of no concern or interest to anyone but the speaker. The Three B's: The noncommissioned officer must ever be aware that his senior's time is va1uabl e and must be portioned out to others whose problem's are equally important. In presenting anyproblems for the senior to consider, "Be Clear, Be Brief, and Be Gone." 14 PROMOTION FOR ENLISTED PERSONNEL Reference: NGR 600-200 1. Q: What are the objectives of the Army promotion system? A: 1 . Fill federally recognized enlisted spaces with qualified soldiers. 2 . Provide for career progression and rank which is in line with potential. 3. Recognize the best qualified soldier while providing incentives for retention of quality personnel. 4. Preclude promoting the soldier who is not productive or not best qualified. 5. Provide an equitable promotion system that will objectively consider all qualified soldiers. 2. Q: Who has the authority to advance or promote assigned soldiers to Grades E-2 through E-4? A: Unit Commander. 3. Q: Who has the authority to promote to grades E-5 through E-6? A: Field grade commander of any unit authorized a commander in grade of Lieutenant Colonel (05) or higher. 4. Q: What is the normal time in grade requirement for advancement to Private First Class (E-3)? A: Four months time in grade. 5. Q: Are SQT scores needed to promote to Speci a1 i st Four (E-4)? A: No. 6. Q: What form wou 1d you use to recommend a person for promotion? A: NGB Form 4100. 7. Q: Who approves or disapproves promotion recommendations? A: The promotion authority. 8. Q: If a promotion recommendation including waiver is disapproved, it will be returned through channels to the recommending official with reasons for disapproval stated clearly and concisely. What must the recommending official then do? A: The recommending official will advise the soldier of the reasons for disapproval. He will point out deficiencies and suggest ways for improving performance. Subsequent1y, a statement wi 11 be prepared, and the soldier will sign it affirming that he has been counseled 15 9. Q: on is promotion status and deficiencies. When is a promotion point worksheet (DA prepared? Form 3355) A: When required by state AG. 10. Q: A promotion members? board must consist of at 1east how many A: The board must have at least three voting members recorder without a vote. and a 1 1 . Q: A: Who The will be the President of a mixed promotion board? senior member, preferably a field grade officer. 1 2 . Q: A: The senior member of an all enlisted promotion board must be what grade? Command Sergeant Major, or a Sergeant Major in a Command Sergeant Major position. 1 3 . Q: What are the security requirements for promotion to gradeE-7? A: The soldier must the MOS in which have a security clearance required bythe soldier is to be promoted. 14. Q: A: What are the security clearance requirements for promotion to grades E-8 or E-9? The soldier must have a favorable National Agency Check (NAC) completed or have a fihal SECRET security clearance or higher as required by the slot. PREPARING FOR A PROMOTION BOARD When is the best time to start preparing for the promotionboard? The answer t.o that question is NOW. Do not make the mistake of thinking that you can just put on a uniform and reportto the board without adequate preparation. Check your records. Make an appointment to discuss them with the person that is responsible to manage them. Make sure you have copies in your reco~ds of all letters of appreciation and/or commendation, certificates of achievement and awards. Verify that the awards 1i sted in ,your f i 1e match' the ones which you have on your uniform. Review the evidence in your file of correspondence courses and civilian or military education. If you have not been doing anything in theiway of civiliari or military education, sign . . •i ' up for a correspondence course ASAP. l Invest1gate the opportun1tyto get involved in. civilian education or resident militarytraining. Sit down and write a resume covering your military career thus 16 far to include civilian education. Cover all the good points; leave out the bad points. Do not forget special achievements such as trainee of the cycle, firing expert, supernumerary of the guard, maxing the PT test, etc. You will then be prepared to tell the board about yourself when requested to do so without having to review all of your past in your mind on the spot. you will have the good things in mind to relate to the board. Remember, you are a salesman; the product you have to sell is you. The board will not promote you unless you convince the members that you are entitled to the promotion. Read Army pub1 i cations and current event magazines. Be current on the front page stories of the local newspapers. Listen to the local news on the radio and watch television news for at least a week before the board. All of these things will help you to be knowledgeable on current events in preparation for the board. Take a critical look at your uniform. Make sure that it is complete. Try on the complete uniform prior to the appearance at the board. Send the uniform to the cleaners to have it professionally cleaned and pressed. Check the trouser length to makes sure that the trousers are cut on an angle so that the rear of the trouser leg hangs lower than the front. The front should just touch the top of the shoe with a small break allowed in the crease of the trousers when they touch the shoes. The rear portion should come to the middle of the shoe. One of the worst· things you can have is "high water" trousers. For females the hemline that is currently vogue may not necessarily conform to the regulation. Always check the regulations to make sure that your uniform conforms. A "spit shine" is a must, but does not do much good for a pair of worn out shoes. Check your heels, if you can get a pencil under the heel with the heels flat on the floor, you need new heels. If your low quarters are worn out, a good investment may be a pair of Corfams and some good edge dressing whether your low quarters are old or new. Make sure that your neck tie is clean and that you can properly tie a small windsor knot or other appropriate, small knot. If this is a problem, you can purchase a clip-on tie at the PX for a nominal price. Unit awards are worn over the right breast pocket. You should know the name of each unit award, and what the unit did to receive the award. A1 ong the edge of the award is a brass frame with leaves engraved on it. Remember the old saying, "The wheat grows up." This will help you from putting the award on upside down. Get a good haircut just before the appearance before the board. It does not do the soldier any good to have a borderline haircut. If you have a mustache, make sure it is properly trimmed. A tapered haircut may be more acceptab1e to some of the o 1 der members of the board than a block style haircut. The hair should 1 7 also be combed in a conservative manner. Remember, you want to impress the board that you conform to conservative military standards. If you need corrective lenses, wear contacts, army issue glasses, or conservative civilian glasses. Do not wear sunglasses of any kind unless you are under medical care and the doctor has specifically directed to you to wear sunglasses. In that case you should bring with you a statement from the doctor. The members of the board want to be able to see your eyes when they interview you~ Do not wear too much jewelry. Review the regu 1ations to determine what jewelry is acceptable to wear. A conservative watch, and if married, a wedding ring would be appropriate to wear. Otherwise, it may be best not to wear any jewelry. At a promotion board, personal appearance, bearing, and self confidence are very important. You can memorize AR's, FM's, TM's,and this study guide, but if you do not look sharp and act like a professional soldier, the board members may check the block that says, "I do not recommend this soldier for promotion." If yourboard is for NCO/Soldier of the Quarter, you will only receive a handshake. When it is time to report to the president of the board, remember a few things. The members of the board do not have anything personal against you. If you think that a member may be prejudiced against you, you may challenge the participation of that person. The members of the board like good soldiers. They were once privates, specialists, and junior-grade sergeants. Speak in a clear, distinct voice at all times during the board's interview. Make sure you smile during the interview, because it is worth points to you, and demonstrates to the board that you are se1f confident. However, present a very military appearance when youfirst report. Never forget to use proper military courtesy during your interview. When it is your turn to appear before the board, knock loudly on the door and enter only when told to do so. Normally, a board is composed of three to five members. The senior member is the president. He or she will normally be seated in the center of the board. Approach the president using the most direct route and proper facing movements. When you are approximately three feet from the edge of the table in front oflthe president, halt at the position of attention, inap your heels together, and crisply render the hand salute. While!saluting, you will report. The first word you say will always be "sir", "ma'am" or "sergeant major" whichever the case may be. Next, state your rank ahd last name. This will be fo 11 owed by the phrase, "reporting to the president of the promotion (NCO/soldier of the quarter) board as directed". Hold your salute unti 1 the president returns your salute. After youhave reported and the president has returned your salute, you will 18 probably be directed to be seated. When assuming the sitting position, maintain a good military posture. The first impression is extremely important. Keep your back erect, knees in front of the chair, and feet flat on the floor. Place your arms at your side, and rest your hands comfortably on your legs. When answering a question, direct your answer to the member of the board who asked the question. If the member is an officer, start your answer with the rank of the NCO, such as "first sergeant or sergeant major". Be enthusiastic when giving your answer and maintain eye to eye contact. It is important to remember that you will not be rated only by your answer but also on how well your answer is presented. Voice control, vocabulary, attitude, and enthusiasm are all actions which will enhance your appearance and significantly contribute to your overall standing in the selection process. When you are dismissed by the president of the board, without being awkward, snap to the position of attention from your sitting position and render the hand salute. When your salute is returned, execute an about face and exit by the most direct route. Take the advice of CSM James M. Greer (formerly the Command Sergeant Major of the Army) who appeared before many boards and sat on over a hundred boards. CSM Greer sated, "Don't try to just get by. It's not always the best man or woman who wins; its the best prepared man or woman who wins. Be a winner and good luck!" GENERAL MILITARY QUESTIONS 1 . Q: A: Name the Colonel, ranks of "Field Grade Officers?" lieutenant colonel, and major. 2. Q: What are the three branches of the United States Government?" A: Executive, judicial, and legislative. 3. Q: A: What do the numbers and letters in the MOS code describe? The name and numbers assigned to Military Occupational Specialties (MOS) consist of numbers designating the career management fields and skill levels. 4. Q: What are the four items placed on the identification tag A: (dog tag)? Name, social security number, blood type, and religion. 5 . Q: What is the basic counterintelligence responsibility of A: every soldier? The responsibility of every soldier is to keep information about himself, his unit, and any other military subject from getting into the possession of 19 unauthorized individuals. 6. Q: What are the three basic rules of camouflage? A: 1. Take advantage of all available natural concealment. 2. Alter the form, shadow, texture, and color of objects. 3. Camouflage against ground and air observation. 7. Q: What is camouflage discipline? A: The avoidance of any activity that changes the appearance of an area or reveals military objects to the enemy. 8. Q: Who has responsibility for individual concealment? A: The individual soldier. 9 . Q: What is the difference between cover and concealment? A: Cover is protection against enemy fire; concealment is protection against observation. 10. Q: Who was the first general to lead an American Army? A: General George Washington. 11 . Q: What was General Douglas MacArthur's rank when he retired? A: General of the Army. 12. Q: Who said, "I shall return", and where was it said? A: General Douglas MacArthur in the Philippines. 13. Q: Who commanded the Third Army in World War II? A: General George Patton. 14. Q: Who was a member of the 35th Division in World War I and later became President of the United States? A: Harry s. Truman. (He was a captain in the 35th.) 15. Q: Communications are very important to an army operating in the field. Some of the means of communications are: radio, telephone, and messenger. Which of these is the most secure means of communication? A: Messenger. 16. Q: What is the Skill Qualification Test (SQT)? A: The test to measure the soldier's abi 1ity to satisfactorily perform specific critical tasks. 17. Q: Name the components of the Skill Qualification Test. A: Job site component, hands-on component, and skill component (written). 18. Q: What is the lowest enlisted grade authorized to be a rater in the noncomissioned officer evaluation report? 20 A: E5. 19. Q: With the exception of a special report, what is the minimum time that an E6 must supervise an E5 in order to rate the E5? A: Three months. 20. Q: Name three of the eights types of Enlisted Evaluation Reports. A: 1. Initial or First 2. Annua1 3. Change of rater 4. Special 5. Other 6. Relief for cause 7. Directed 8. Relief from AT/ADT You are an E6 and another E6 in your chain of command has 21. Q: rated an E5, can you endorse this rating? A: Yes, provided that you are senior to the rater in date of rank. 22. Q: Can an E5 rate another E5? A: Yes. The rater must be senior by date of rank to the soldier being rated. 23. Q: Every unit must have a rating scheme. In accordance with AR 623-205, what is the lowest enlisted grade included in the rating scheme? A: E5. 24. Q: When was the medal of honor approved by Congress? A: 1862. 25. Q: What is the purpose of troop lay-out inspections? A: The purpose is to see that a soldier has all the clothing and equipment issued to him/her and that it has been properly maintained. 26. Q: The 300th Military Intelligence Brigade is organized into how many separate units? A: Six battalions: The 141st and the 142d in Utah, the 223d in California, the 260th in Florida, the 341st in Washington, the 415th in Louisiana. Also, Co A of the 368th MI Bn in Hawaii. 27. Q: What do the letters "ADAPCP" stand for? A: Alcohol and Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Program. 28. Q: There are two ways in which personnel get into the ADAPCP, what are they? A: 1. Voluntary (Self-referral). 2. Command referral. 21 29. Q: What is the purpose of the Army Alcohol and Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Program? A: To rehabilitate Army personnel and civilian employees who have a drug or alcohol problem and restore them to full duty. 30. Q: What is SAEDA? A: Subversion and espionage directed against the Army. 31. Q: Who is responsible for security? A: Everyone. 32. Q: What are the three categories of security classification placed on Department of Defense information? A: Top Secret, Secret and Confidential. 33. Q: What is DA Form 2A? A: The Armed Forces Identification Card. 34. Q: What is enemy propaganda? A: Information and ideas that the enemy directs toward youwith the intention of having you act in a way which will help them. 35. Q: What was the National Security Act of 1947? A: A civilian was designated in charge of all the militaryservices (Secretary of Defense). 36. Q: When capturing a prisoner of war, there are five things you must do. What are they?i A: Search, segregate, silence, speed and safeguard. 37. Q: How often is an individual soldier required to read the unit bulletin board? A: At least twice a day or more, according to the unit SOP. 38. Q: What privilege is denied a member of the armed forces committed to a military confinement facility? A: Saluting. 39. Q: What is the oldest military decoration presently in use? A: The Pu rp 1 e Heart -estab1 i shed by Genera1 George Washington in 1782. 40. Q: What monetary compensation are winners of the Medal of Honor entitled to? A: $100.00 per month for life. 41. Q: What service is the oldest -Army, Navy of Air Force? A: The U.S. Army (14 June 1775). 22 42. Q: What is supply economy? A: Making the best use of what supplies you have and requisitioning only what you need. 43. Q: Is it proper for a male soldier to carry an umbrella while in uniform? A: No. 44. Q: What insignia of rank does the Sergeant Major of the Army wear? A: Three stripes up and three down with two stars in the center. It is similar to the Sergeant Major insignia of rank, but instead of one star it has two. 45. Q: What do the Letters "QMP" stand for? A: Qualitative Management Program -commonly known as the UP or OUT program. 46. Q: In relation to the "QMP", what is the retention ineligibility point? A: The retention ineligibility point is the point in time for determining satisfactory progression of enlisted personnel in each grade. 47. Q: What are the four types of inspections? A: 1. In ranks 2. Quarters 3. Full field 4. Show down 48. Q: What is meant by the term "cold war"? A: Anything short of actual shooting. Restricted travel, limited purchasing power, etc. 49 Q: Does the President have the power to declare war against a nation? A: No, only Congress does. 50. Q: What three NCO grades are not addressed as sergeant? A: Sergeants Major, First Sergeants and Corporals. 51. Q: What are the three classifications of supplies and equipment? A: 1 . Expendab1 e 2. Nonexpendable 3. Durable 52. Q: When speaking about supplies and equipment, what is meant by "durable"? A: Durable items are items which are not consumed in use, retain their original identity, but are neither 23 expendable or nonexpendable. 53. Q: In accordance with AR 600-200, field promotion boards can be either mixed, composed of commissioned officers, warrant officers and enlisted personnel, or an all enlisted board. When the board is an all enlisted board, what requirement exists in regards to the president of the board? A: The President of an all enlisted promotion board must be a Command Sergeant Major, or a Sergeant Major in a Command Sergeant Major position. 54. Q: What do the letters "PMOS" stand for? A: Primary Military Occupational Specialty. 55. Q: What type of insurance program is available in the Army? A: The Servicemen's Group Life Insurance (SGLI). 56. Q: What is the maximum amount of coverage of this insurance? A: $50,000.00. 57. Q: Is the SGLI mandatory for all soldiers? A: No. Participation is strictly voluntary. 58. Q: What do the letters "ACS" stand for? A: Army Community Service. 59. Q: What type of assistance does "ACS" provide? A: The Army Community Service provides counseling service to military personnel and their dependents, assists army families to get settled at a new duty station by lending them househe1 d i terns from a 1can c 1 oset which they operate and provides information on schools in the' local area, etc. 60. Q: How is information passed on to military personnel? A: By the use of the Chain of Command. 61 . Q: What is the lowest enlisted grade authorized to perform headcount duties? A: E4 62. Q: Who must be the reviewer on a special enlisted evaluation report? A: A field grade officer. 63. Q: How often is administered the Skill Qualification Test for their primary military occupational specialty? A: Once a year if there is a test available in their MOS. 65. Q: What does operators maintenance consist of? A: An inspection to see if items are in good condition, correctly assembled, not excessively worn, not leaking 24 and adequately lubricated. 66. Q: What are the three operator checks for an Army vehicle? A: Before, during and after. 67. Q: You have been detailed duty driver for the day. What items should you check on your vehicle before operation? A: Fuel, oil, water, tires, leaks, tools, safety devices, safety equipment, instruments, steering, clutch and brakes. 68. Q: As a combat support soldier, you may be required to report enemy activities in the battlefield. The code word "salute" will help you to gather and report information about the enemy. What does the word "salute" mean? A: S-Size of the enemy unit (Squad, platoon, company). A-Activity of the enemy (What are they doing?). L-Location of the enemy (Where are they?). U-Unit of the enemy (Infantry, arty, ground troop). T -Time you observed the enemy. E -Equipment the enemy is carrying or using. 69. Q: What does "TOE" (Table of Organization and Equipment) mean? A: A "TOE" is an Army Authorization Document which prescribes the amount of personnel and equipment necessary for a unit to perform its mission. 70. Q: What is a "TDA" (Table of Distribution and Allowances)? A: A "TDA" is an Army Authorization Document which prescribes the organizational structure for a unit having a unique mission for which a "TOE" does not exist. It normally contains a large percentage of civilian positions. 71. Q: What is the difference between a "TDA" unit and a "TOE" unit? A: A TDA unit is norma11 y composed of military and civilians and its location is fixed. A TOE unit is normally composed of only military and is operational (deployable-goes to the field). 72. Q: What action would you take if you discover a classified document in your work area? A: Notify your first line leader immediately. 73. Q: When is a sentinel considered unqualified to perform guard duty? A: When he has not qualified with his individual weapon; when he does not know his general or special orders; when relieved by his superiors for cause. 25 74. Q: According to AR 600-20, what is the correct title of address for the following grades? A: Sergeant Major of the Army .........Sergeant Major Command Sergeant Major .............Sergeant Major Sergeant Major .....................Sergeant Major First Sergeant..................... First Sergeant Master Sergeant ....................Sergeant Sergeant First Class ...............Sergeant Specialist ........................Specialist Corpora1...........................Corpora1 75. Q: C i vi 1ian emp 1 oyees of the US Army hold grade classifications of "GS" and "WG". What does "GS" stand for? A: General Schedule. i 76. Q: What is the difference between a general schedule employee and a wage grade employee? A: A General Schedule employee is a white collar worker, while a Wage Grade employee is a blue collar worker. 77. Q: Can a civilian employee of the US Army rate a soldier? A: Yes, provided that he/she has the prerequisites and qualifications of a rater as outlined in AR 623-205. 78. Q: Can three civilians rate, endorse and review a soldier (one the rater, one endorser, one reviewer) on a single evaluation report? A: No, at least one must be military. 79. Q: The US Army provides tuition assistance to active duty service members who are pursuing a college education. What perc~nta~e of the tuition is paid by the government? A: 75% for E4's and below and all pay grades with more than 15 years active service. 90% for E5's and above with less than 15 years service. 80. Q: When do combi~ations to security containers have to be changed? A: Once a year and whenever a person having knowledge of. the combinati6n is reassigned from the section or no longer has a need to know, or the container is moved to another room or building. 81. Q: What are the objectives of the Army's Human Relations and Equal Opportunity Progr~m? A: To provide equality of opportunity, eliminate discrimination and achieve racial harmony. 82. Q: What are an installation commander's responsibilities 26 concerning the Human Re1ations and Equa1 Opportunity Program? A: To make all on-post facilities and official activities, as appropriate, available to all DOD personnel and their dependents, regardless of color, race, religion, sex, age or national origin. 83. Q: What is the definition of personal racism or sexism? A: The acting out of prejudices by individuals against other individuals or groups because of race or gender. 84. Q: How many reliefs compose a guard? . A: Three 85. Q: What are the three purposes of interior guard? A: To preserve order, protect property and enforce military security. 86. Q: What is the first sentence of the Code of Conduct? A: I am an American fighting man. 87. Q: What does the Code of Conduct mean? A: It is a written law governing how soldiers will act in war when taken prisoner. 88. Q: What is concealment? A: Protection from enemy view. 89. Q: What is the difference between a fort and a camp? A: A fort is permanent and a camp is temporary. 90 0 Q: What is an observation post? A: A fixed 1ocation where the terrain or enemy can be observed. 91 Q: What is a patrol? 0 A: A detachment sent out from a unit to perform recon or combat or both. 92 0 Q: What does a recon patrol provide? A: They provide the commander with timely and accurate information of enemy and the terrain he controls. 93 0 Q: What are field fortifications? A: Temporary emplacement to protect from enemy fire. 94. Q: What items of equipment should be marked with name, rank, and serial number? A: Duffel bag. 95. Q: What are four things an entrenching tool can be used for? 27 A: Axe, pick, shovel or weapon. 96. Q: What is the weakest link in the security system? A: The individual. 97. Q: What is the lowest unit in the Army which is authorized a special staff? A: A battalion. 98. Q: What three NCO grades are not addressed as Sergeant? A: Sergeants Major, First Sergeants, and Corporals. (AR 600-20, pg. 1-1, 1-2) 99. Q: What action is taken when the flag is lowered? A: Military personnel in uniform salute, civilians remove hats and p 1 ace hand over heart. (AR 600-25, pg A-2, A-3) 100. Q: What is the purpose of an Honor Guard? A: To render personal honors of high military or civilian rank or position upon arrival or departure from a military command. (FM 22-5, para 115, pg 75) 101. Q: When do military personnel salute encased colors? A: When colors are six steps from them and they hold the sa1ute unti 1 the co1ors are six steps beyond them. AR 600-25, pg A-1) 102. Q: How is honor shown to the national anthem when played indoors? A: By standing at attention until last note of music has been played. (AR 600-25, pg A-2) 103. Q: Are vehicles required to halt when the national anthem is played? A: Yes. Moving vehicles will be brought to a halt. On buses and trucks, on 1y the senior wi 11 dismount and render appropriate courtesy. Passengers and drivers of other vehicles will dismount ahd render the appropriate courtesy. (AR 600-25, App A, pg A-1) 104. Q: Do you salute when in a vehicle? A: Salutes are not required to be rendered by or to personnel who are driving or riding in privately owned vehicles. When military personnel are acting as drivers of a moving vehicle they should not initiate a salute. (AR 600-25, para 1-3a, pg 1~1) 105. Q: What should you do when the national anthem of a foreign country is played? A: Come to the position of attention and salute. (AR 600-25, para 1-10, pg 1-3) 28 106. Q: A: What position is assumed when "retreat" is played? The position of "attention" is assumed when not information. The position of parade rest when in a military formation. (AR 600-25, App A, pg A-1, A-2) 107. Q: A: If your chaplain was a LTC, how would you address him? Chaplain, regardless of grade. (AR 600-20, para 1-6, pg 1-1 ) 108. Q: A: You are in charge of a detail, riding of a 2-1/2 ton truck. Who are you? NCO or person in charge of the detail. 1-3a) in the front (AR 600-25, seat para 109. Q: A: You are in charge of a detail riding in a military vehicle and are passing the colors at retreat. What are your actions and/or your detail's actions? Tell the driver to halt, dismount and render hand salute while detail remains seated at attention. (AR 600-25, App A, pg A-1) 1 1 0 . Q: A: Who is responsible for the safeguarding, care and display of the unit colors? The Command Sergeant Major. (FM 22-5, para 118e, pg 78) 111. Q: A: On Memorial Day, what takes place at 1200 hours posts? A 21 gun salute is fired. (AR 600-25m para 1-9b, on pg most 1-3) 1 1 2 . Q: A: When do you salute? When the National Anthem, "To the Colors", or "Hai 1 to the Chief" is played; when the National colors or standard passes by; on ceremonial occasions; in official greetings; at reveille; when within sight of the flag or sound of the music, during the rendering of honors, or when passing by encased colors when outdoors.(AR 600-25, Chap 1) 113. Q: A: What bugle call is played for Tattoo . ( FM 21 -1 3 ) light out? 114. Q: A: What bugle call is played Taps. (FM 21-13) at 2300 hours? 11 5. Q: A: If an enlisted man salutes an officer outside and gives him the greeting of the day, by regulations, is the officer required to return the salute? Yes. (AR 600-25, Ch 1) 11 6. Q: Can you name an occasion when does not have to return your reporting that the salute? officer 29 11 7. A: Q: A: At pay call. (FM 21-13, pg 148) What is meant by "Under Arms"? It is carrying a weapon or having one attached person by sling or holster. (FM 21-13, pg 147) to the 118. Q: A: What is the origin of the salute? In early Roman history, persons meeting would raise their hand in the air, pa1m forward, to show they he 1d no weapons and were friendly. This has evolved into the present day salute. (FM 21-13, pg 142) 1 1 9 . Q: A: What is the title of Sergeant Major. (AR address of 600-20, pg an E9? 1-2) 120. Q: A: When do you keep officer inside a When under arms. your headgear on when building? (FM 21-14, pg 147) reporting to an 121 . Q: A: What does the salute mean? It is a gesture of respect and confidence exchanged fighting men. It is a privilege possessed only soldiers in good standing. (FM 21-13, pg 141) by by 122. Q: A: Who is responsible for selecting, training and performance of the Color Bearers and Color Guard? The Command Sergeant Major. (FM 22-5, para 118e, pg the 78e) 123. Q: A: How is the flag flown on Memorial Day, Displayed at half-staff from reveille full staff. (AR 600-25, para 1-9b) 30 May? until noon, then 124. Q: A: What is the Tattoo-28 longest bugle call? bars long. (FM 21-13, pg 17) 30 Below is a partial list of persons who are entitled to honors, together with the number of guns. (AR 600-25, Table 2-1, pg 2-3) Grade or Titles: Number of Gun Salutes: President, Ex-President, or President Elect 21 Vice President 19 Speaker of the House of Representatives 19 Premier or Prime Minister 19 Secretary of Defense 19 Cabinet Members, Governor of a State, Chief Justice of the United States 19 Secretary of the Army, Navy or Air Force. 19 Chairman, Joint Chief of Staff 19 Chief of Staff, United State Army 19 General of the Army 19 Generals 17 Lieutenant Generals 15 Major Generals 13 Brigadier Generals 11 31 ABBREVIATIONS 1. DOD-Department of Defense 2. MAAG-Military Assistance Advisory Group 3. MAC-Military Airlift Command 4. ATCO 5. USARPAC 6. NATO 7. SEATO 8. SHAPE - Air Traffic Coordinating Office -US Army Pacific North Atlantic Treaty Organization South East Asia Treaty Organization Supreme Headquarters, Allied Powers Europe 9. DARCOM -Material Development and Readiness Command 10. CERCOM -Communications & Electronics Readiness Command 11. HISA-Headquarters & Installation Support Activity 12. CONUS -Conti·nenta1 United States 13. VOCO -Verbal Orders of Commanding Officer 14. SOP -Standing Operating Procedures 15. DAC-Depart~ent of the Army Civilian 16. ETS -Expiration Term of Service ' 17. LN -Local National ,,, 18. BARC -Barge !Amphibious Resupp1 y Cargo ' 19. DEROS-Date !Eligible to Rotate from Overseas ,'' 20. DOR -Date of Rank 21. PCS-Permanent Change of Station 22. USARJ -US A~my Japan 23. USARK -US Army Korea 24. ESC-Equipment Serviceability Criteria 32 ABBREVIATIONS CONTINUED. 25. PLL -Prescribed Load Test 26. USAREUR -United States Army Europe 27. ITAC-Intelligence and Threat Analysis Center 28. ISC-Intelligence and Security Command 29. WG -Wage grade 30. ITEP -Individual Training Evaluation Program ENLISTED TITLES AND ABBREVIATIONS Reference: AR 600-20 PAY TITLE OF ABBREVIARANK GRADE ADDRESS TION SENIOR NONCOMMISSIONED OFFICERS AND SPECIALISTS Sergeant Major of the Army E9 Sergeant Major SMA Command Sergeant Major E9 Sergeant Major CSM Sergeant Major E9 Sergeant Major SGM First Sergeant E8 First Sergeant 1SG Master Sergeant E8 Sergeant MSG Platoon Sergeant E7 Sergeant PSG JUNIOR NONCOMMISSIONED OFFICERS AND SPECIALISTS Staff Sergeant E6 Sergeant SSG Sergeant E5 Sergeant SGT Corporal E4 Corporal CPL Specialist Four E4 Specialist SPC PRIVATES Private First Class E3 Private PFC Private E2 Private PV2 Private E1 Private PV1 33 AWARDS AND DECORATIONS Reference: AR 672-5-1 1 • Q. A. What is the objective of the Department of the Armymilitary awards program? The objective is to provide tangible recognition for acts of valor, exceptional service of achievement, specialskills or qualifications, and acts of heroism not involving actual combat. 2 . Q. A. What are the categories of indi~idual awards? They are decorations, Good Conduct Medal, service medals,badges and tabs, and certificates and letters. 3. Q. A. What is meant by heroism? A specific,act of braveryclosely rel'ated series of a short pe~iod of time. or outstanding courage, or a heroic acts performed within 4. Q. A. What is meant by meritorious achievement? A praiseworthy accomplishment with easily discernable beginning ~nd end, carried through to completion. 5. Q. A. What is meant by meritorious service? Praisewort~y execution of duties over a period of time. Service differs from achievement in that service concerns an enterprise having a definite beginning and end, but not neces.sar i 1 y connected with a specific period of time. 6 . Q. A. What is meant by valor? It is heroism performed under combat conditions. 7 . Q. Who may recommend an individual for an award? A. It is the responsibility of anyknowledge of an act, achievement or individual havingservice believed to warrant the award of recommendat'i on into consideration. a decoration, to submit a forma 1 mi 1i tary command channe 1 s for 8. Q. What is the time for an award? limit for submitting a recommendation A. The recommendation for an award of a military decoration must be enter,ed administratively into military channels within two years of the act,. achievement or service to be honored. 9. Q. A. What is the highest award that can of the Army of the United States? The Medal of Honor. be given to a member 34 10. Q. Who usually presents the Medal of Honor to recipients? A. The President of the United States. 11. Q. What is engraved on the reverse side of the Meda1 of Honor? A. The rank, name and organization of the awardee. 12. Q. Additionally, what does a Medal of Honor awardee receive from the Veterans Administration? A. A special pension of $100.00 per month for life. 13. Q. What form is used for submission of a recommendation for an award? A. DA form 638. 14. Q. What is attached to the recommendation for an award as an enclosure? A. A one-page summary (double spaced) of the deed, service or achievement which merited the award recommendation. 15. Q. What medal is awarded for exemplary behavior, efficiency, and fidelity in active Federal military service? A. The Good Conduct Medal. 16. Q. What is the usual period of qualification for award of the Good Conduct Medal? A. Three (3) years. 17. Q. What are the three classes of qualification for the M16 rifle badge? A. They are expert, sharpshooter, and marksman. 18. Q, How are U.S. service medals worn? A. They will be worn in the order of descending precedence from the wearer's right to left. 19. Q. What is the highest award given by the Army in time of war? A. The Medal of Honor. 20. Q. Who must award the Medal of Honor? A. The President of the United States. 21 . Q. Who can make recommendations for awards? A. Any person having knowledge of an outstanding act or achievement. 22. Q. For what is the Army Commendation Medal given? A. For meritorious service and acts of heroism when acts of courage do not meet requirements for the Soldiers Medal. Also for circumstances of a lesser degree than required 35 for the Bronze Star Medal. 23. Q. For what is the Soldiers Medal awarded? A. For distinguished act of heroism not involving actual contact with an armed enemy. 24. Q. To whom is the Purple Heart awarded? A. To military personnel or civilian citizens who are wounded in action against an armed enemy. 25. Q. For what is a "Clasp" used? A. To indicate a second or subsequent award of the Good Conduct Medal. 26. Q. What is the second highest award in the armed forces? A. The Distinguished Service Cross. 27. Q. What is meant by "Above and Beyond the Call of Duty"? A. It includes the acceptance of existing danger or extraordinary responsibility with praiseworthy fortitude and exemplary courage which is not as a rule expected of a person. 28. Q. What is a Service Medal? A. An award made to an individual who participated in designated wars, campaigns, expeditions or who has fulfi 1led in creditable manner specified service requirements. 29. Q. What is a Unit Award? A. An award made to an operating unit and worn by members of the unit who participated in the cited action. Sometimes also authorized for temporary wear by other personnel while serving in the cited unit. 30. Q. When are awards authorized for wear? A. Commanders may prescribe the wearing of awards on the following'occasions: 1. Parades, reviews, inspections and funerals. 2. Ceremonial and social occasions. 3. On normal duty when the service or dress uniform is worn. AWARDS MAY BE WORN ON ALL THE ABOVE OCCASIONS, AT THE OPTION OF THE WEARER, WHEN NOT PROHIBITED AND ALSO OFF DUTY ON HOLIDAY OCCASIONS. 31. Q. When is the wear of awards prohibited? A. The wear of awards is prohibited on the followingoccasions: 1. When equipped for combat or simulated combat. 2. By officers when suspended from rank or command. 3. By enlisted personnel while serving a sentence of 36 confinement. 4. When wearing civilian clothing except for civilian awards, lapel buttons or rosettes made for wear with civilian clothing. 32. Q, A. What is a A replica half that miniature medal? of a regular size of the original. medal, made to a scale The Medal of Honor is one not worn in miniature. 33. Q, A. What is a badge? An award to an individual for identification purposes or for attaining a special skill or proficiency which consists of a pin-on medallion which is sometimes hung from a bar. Certain badges are available in full size, miniature and dress miniature sizes. 34. Q. Who is authorized to wear the National Defense Service A. Medal? Those personnel who served honorably from 01 and 14 August 1974 dates inclusive. January 1961 35. Q. What are the three categories of awards? A. 1 • Decorations 2. Good Conduct 3. Service Medals CAMOUFLAGE Reference: FM 5-20 1 • Q. A. What is the importance of camouflage? Correctly used, it can spell the difference between successfu1 campaign and defeat; to the i nd i vi dua1, can mean the difference between life and death. a it 2. Q. A. What is direct observation? It refers to the process whereby the observer sees the subject physically, that is, with his eyes -aided or unaided. An example of this is using binoculars. 3. Q. A. What is indirect observation? The observer sees a picture or an image of the subject and not the physical subject itself. Photography, radar, infrared and television are used in indirect observation. 4. Q, A. In modern warfare aerial photography has assumed a place of extreme importance, and in regard to camouflage detection and inspection, photography has reached a stage where it is indispensable. Name the three categories of aerial photographs used in camouflage detection. Vertical, high oblique and low oblique. 37 5 . Q. What are the four types of film used in aerial photography? A. Black and white, color, infrared and camouflage detection fi 1m. 6. Q. Regardless of the method of observation employed, there are certain factors which must always be present to helpthe eye and brain identify an object. These are termed factors of recognition. Name the factors of recognition. A. Position, shape, shadow, texture, color and movement. 7. Q. There are three fundamental ways of concealinginstallations and activities? What are they? A. Hiding, blending and disguising. 8. Q. What is individual camouflage? A. It is the concealment a soldier uses in combat to surprise, deceive and outwit his enemy. 9. Disguising the helmet: The outline of the helmet is one of the striking characteristics of a soldier's equipment, and its curved fami 1iar shape can be easily identified by the enemy.One of the first steps for individual camouflage is the disruption both of the form of the helmet and the strongstraight-lined shadow it casts. There are several waysof doing this. See figure 12-1. 10. Canvas equipment: Age and repeated washing will fade canvas equipment.When this occurs it must be darkened with paint, mud, charcoa1 or~ anything e 1 se that wi 11 reduce the tona 1 contrast. 11. Skin: Face, neck and hands should be toned down by painting them in a disruptive pattern or by toning them down in an even co)or. When using disruptive painting, the patterns should cut across the nose lines, cheek bones, eye sockets and chin lines. Bunnt cork and mud can be used, or in the absence of natu~al materials, the face paint stick may be used. A mesh mosquito netting,properly toned down, is an effective way of breaking up to outlines of the face. 12. Weapon tonedown: One of the simplest ways to distort the giveaway outline of a weapon is by wrapping it with burlap garnishing or strips of cloth dyed to match the background. Pattern painting the weapon is another excellent method of 38 'distorting the weapon outline. The shiny parts can be Care must be taken when covered by cloth, paint, or mud. camouflaging a weapon to ensure no inte~ference in the sighting and firing of it. 13. Shiny objects: is a common Reflection from brightly shining objects breach of camouflage discipline. All shiny objects must be concea1ed. This inc1udes such i terns as watches, rings, belt buckles and mess kit items. A common breach of discipline is the wearing of goggles on the helmet. This is a violation which should be avoided. 14. Camouflage clothing: Individual concealment requires a little planning, thought and ingenious use of materials at hand. This applies to the camouflage of clothing also. In the absence of issued camouflage uniforms, the soldier can 'make his own camouflage suit, adapting its color and pattern to the terrain background. Any coloring materials can be used, such as dyes, crankcase oil, or even a mixture of mud and grease. The important thing is to make the clothing look less like a uniform and more like the terrain in which it is to be worn. For use in snow covered terrain there is available a white garment .designed to blend with a white, or mottled white and b1ack, background. The snowsuit does not. concea1 the small patches of shadow that surround a human figure, but this is not necessary since snow country is seldom all white and contains numerous dark spots and shadows. If certain snow areas are all white with absolutely no shadows, use is made of defiles, snow drifts and natural folds in the ground. It must be remembered that camouf1age c 1othi ng and camouf1aged equipment a 1one won't concea1 . The tonedown, the camouf1aged he1met, the painted suit, the covered shiny object are just the beginning of the concealment job. Too often men have relied with complete faith on a camouflaged suit, thinking themselves miraculously invisible and completely This disregarding all the basic elements of camouflage. invariably leads to disastrous results. These measures make it easier to conceal oneself, but only when taken in conjunction with the principles of scouting and patrolling. 39 CIVIL DISTURBANCES Reference: FM 19-15 1. Q. What is a civil disturbance? A. A civil disturbance is defined as group acts of violence and disorders prejudicial to public law and order. Terrorist incidents are not covered under this definition. 2. Q. What is the definition of a crowd? A. It is defined as a large number of persons temporarily congregated. Just as in all other forms of collective behavior, a C'rowd is more than just a collection of individuals. Simply being a part of a crowd affects an individual and he is, to some degree, different than when alone. For example, a very mild and submissive person may find courage within a crowd to commit acts he would be afraid to attempt by himself. 3. Q. Why does a crowd represent a threat to law and order? A. In a civil disturbance environment, any crowd represents a threat to' law and order because of its vulnerability to manipulation by skillful agitators and subsequentcapacity for .violence. 4. Q. What is a mob? A. A mob is a crowd whose members lose their concern for laws and authority and follow their leaders into unlawful and disruptive acts. Mob behavior is highly emotional, oftentimes unreasonable, and prone to violence. 5. Q. What is the ultimate objective of civil disturbance management? A. The ultimate objective of civil disturbance managementis the restoration of a state of law and order. 6. Q. What is the principle of minimum force? A. Unlike combat operations where the use of overwhelmingfirepower is desirable, civil disturbance control operations must be accomplished with minimum injury to persons or damage to property. The use of force must be restricted to the minimum degree consistent with mission accomplishment. 7. Q. What are riot control agents? A. They are chemicals widely used by governments for domestic 1aw enforcement purposes. They producetransient effects on man that disappear within 40 minutes of removal from exposure. 8. Q. What are the characteristics of riot control agent (CS)? A. It is a pyrotechnic mixture in powdered form and has a pungent, pepperlike odor. The persistency of CS varies in the open according to wind conditions. CS in powdered form has greater persistency when there is no wind or in wooded terrain. 9. Q. Name the types of formations used for crowd control? A. 1 . Line 2. Echelon, right or left 3. Wedge 4. Diamond 5. Circular 10. Q. What is the mission of military forces during a civil disturbance? A. It is to assist civil authorities in the restoration of law and order and the protection of lives and property. 11 . Q. What are the types of disturbances you may encounter? A. 1 • Campus disorder 2. Labor disorders 3. Urban demonstrations and disturbances 12. Q. Describe the riot baton. A. The riot baton is any length from 26 inches to 42 inches but the optimum length for employment by military personnel is 36 inches. The baton should be made of a dense wood such as rosewood or walnut. The diameter is about 1 . 25 inches and is rounded at both ends. It is drilled 9 inches from the grip end for the installation of a wrist thong. CLOTHING AND EQUIPMENT 1 • Q: What is referred to as the gig line on the uniform? A: The alignment of the shirt, belt buckle and trouser fly. 2. Q: In reference to your military clothing what does initial issue mean to you? A: Complete issue of all personal military clothing when first entering the Army. 3. Q: What agency gives you payroll deductible laundry service? A: Quartermaster Laundry. 41 4. Q: What should each man do with his personal and militaryclothing prior to going on leave if he does not plan ontaking it with him? A: Turn it in to unit supply for safe keeping. (AR 700-84) 5 . Q: How many pieces of laundry are you authorized to turn into the Quartermaster laundry a week? A: 26 pieces per week. 6. Q: How many organization sleeve insignias should be issuedto each newly assigned man? A: Seven (7), one for each uniform. 7 . Q: When a man signs his clothing records, what column shouldbe checked before signing? A: The issue column above his signature. 8. Q: What is the first thing you do before signing a hand receipt? A: Inspect the equipment for accountability and serviceability. 9. Q: Who is responsible for supply economy? A: Every soldier. 11 . Q: What are expendable supplies? A: Any supplies that are consumed on use (food, soap, paper,paint, etc. ) . 12. Q: What is the most common supply economy practice used in a standard Army Dining Hall? A: "Take all you want, eat all you take." 13. Q: Name a few supply economy practices we should all be constantly striving to do. A: Turn off water when done, turhf out lights when not inuse, save water, maintain our p~rsonal and organizational equipment, economize on the use of petroleum products anduse equipment as it is designed., ,il ! 14. Q: What is a statement of charges? , A: A statement of charges is made to provide a payrolldeduction for an individual ~ho; through his neglect,lost, damaged or destroyed g~~e~nment property and is required to pay for it. "' 15. Q: What is a report of survey? A: A survey is conducted by a responsible party to determineif the loss, damage or destructio~ of government propertyis through neglect. If so, th~·~ndividual may be required·to pay for the item(s) or be l~unished under the UCMJ. 42 CODE OF CONDUCT I am an American fighting man. I serve in the forces which 1. guard my country and our way of life. I am prepared to give my life in their defense. 2. I will never surrender of my own free will. If in command I have the means to wi 11 never surrender my men whi 1e they sti 11 resist. all means 3. If I am captured, I wi 11 continue to resist by available. I will make every effort to escape and aid others to escape. I will accept neither parole nor special favors from the enemy. 4. If I become a prisoner of war, I will keep faith with my fellow prisoners. I will give no information or take part in any action which might be harmful to my comrades. If I am senior, I will take command. If not, I will obey the lawful orders of those appointed over me and will back them up in every way. 5. When questioned, should I become a prisoner of war, I am bound to give only my name, rank, service number and date of birth. I will evade answering further questions to the utmost of my ability. I will make no oral or written statements disloyal to my country and its allies or harmful to their cause. 6. I will -never forget that I am an American fighting man, actions and dedicated to the principles which responsible for my I will trust in my God and the United States made my country free.of America. 43 COMMAND SERGEANT MAJOR (CSM) FM 101-5 outlines the job of Command Sergeant Major (CSM) as follows: 1 . Advises and initiates recommendations to the Commander andStaff in matters pertaining to enlisted personnel. 2. Executes established policies and standards pertaining to theperformance, training, appearance and conduct of enlistedpersonne1. 3. Maintains communication with the subordinate unitnoncommissioned officers and enlisted personnel through thenoncommissioned officer support chann~l. 4. Provides counsel and guidance to noncommissioned officers and their enlisted personnel. 5. Performs other duties prescribed by the commander which mayinclude reception and orientation of enlisted personnel, assistingin the inspection of command activities and facilities, and serving as president or member of command promotion boards fornoncommissioned officers. Actually the CSM assists the commander in the accomplishmentof his mission and to look out for the welfare of the enlistedsoldier. Each commander defines the responsibilities and authorityof his CSM to his staff and subordinate commanders. Most commanders' basic guidance to their CSM is to insure that NCO's1ead, supervise and teach and to insure that the NCO SupportChannel is taking care of soldiers. There are other things whichthe CSM does such as administer the NCO Development Program(NCODP), review NCOER's and preside over promotion and Soldier/NCO of the Month/Quarter/Year Boards. All CSM's have seen a lot, so you need to use theirexperience. Ask them questions. They like to talk with soldiers.Since they are not in your chain of command, CSM's can help you on a confidential level. If you have a problem or are in trouble,then the CSM' s job is to he1 p you. ' ' 44 CORRESPONDENCE COURSE PROGRAM Reference: AR 351-20 1. Administration: The Commanding General, US Army Training and Doctrine Command (TRADOC), will supervise the conduct of the army correspondence course program in all US Army schools, and will be the final approving authority for programs prepared by TRADOC schools. 2. Principles: A. The Army correspondence course program provides a curriculum of military subjects. It enables members of Army components to obtain or further their military education in order to effectively perform duties they may be called upon to carry out in peace or war. B. Army correspondence courses provided by Army schools enable eligible personnel to participate in group or individual study designated to assist in acquiring specific knowledge for the development, reinforcement, and updating of MOS skills and for career advancement. 3. Policies: A. Army correspondence courses are available to members of other US military services and to eligible civilian employees of Federal Government agencies. B. Completion of a correspondence course is considered an equal level of attainment as completion of a resident course of instruction, but does not preclude attendance at a resident course of instruction. C. The Army correspondence curriculum wi 11 be organized as follows: (1) Professional development correspondencecourses. (2) Skill progression and functionalcorrespondence courses. (3) Army Precommission Course correspondencecourses. (4) Individual subcourses. 45 4. Eligibility: A. Members of all components of the Army. B. Members of all components of Navy, Marine Corps,and Air Force. C. Army ROTC and NDCC students. D. Civilian employees of any agency of the FederalGovernment whose official duties or prospectiveduties require knowledge available through Armycorrespondence course study. E. Foreign military personnel in some instances. 5. Credit by examination: To permit students to acceleratecompletion of Army correspondenc~ courses, to the extentdetermined by the commandant, credit may be gained by examination only. ' COUNSELING Reference: FM 22-101 1. 0. What is counseling? A. It is a process of listening, communicating advice, instruction, or judgment with the intent of influencinga person's attitude or behavior. 2. Q. How many approaches are there to counsel~ng? A. There are three: the directive, non-directive,and eclectic approaches. 3. Q. Explain what is meant by the DIRECTIVE approach to counseling. A. In directive counseling, the counselor assumes thedominant role, the FATHER FIGURE. This approach iscounselor-centered. It uses logic and reason, teachingsuggestion, persuasion, confrontation, or changing ofattitudes to obtain resu1ts deemed appropriate by thecounse1or. Often, a subordinate seeks this kind ofcounsel. This approach maybe thel most effective when thecounselee is immature, dependent:, or insecure. It alsoprovides help for many problems such as indebtedness andf i nanc i a 1 management, on-the-spot corrections, andcertain aspects of performance counseling. 46 4. Q. What is meant by the NON-DIRECTIVE approach to counseling? A. The non-directive approach is termed "soldier-centered" in that the counselor causes the counselee to take complete responsibility for solving his own problem. This approach gives the counselee the opportunity to work out solutions to his problem through personal insight, judgment, and realization of facts. The non-directive approach provides a sheltered situation in which a counselee is permitted to look inside himself and realize a freedom to what he wants to be, to feel as he wants to feel, to think as he wants to think. The result is an individual who has a better understanding of himself. 5. Q. What is meant by the ECLECTIC approach to counseling? A. This approach combines the counseling techniques of both the d i recti ve and non-d i recti ve methods. A combined approach allows the counselor to adjust the techniques of guidance to emphasize those which are best for the counselee. At the same time, this approach can be adjusted to fit the counselor's personality and capabilities and allows both the counselor and counselee to participate in defining, analyzing, and solving the problem. 6. Q. How are counseling skills developed? A. They are developed by studying the rudiments of human behavior, knowing the problem areas affectingsubordinates, and becoming proficient in dealing with counselees. 7. Q. What is the most difficult part of the counseling process? A. It is applying the proper counseling technique. To be effective, the technique must fit the problem, the counselor's capabi 1ity, and the counselee's-expectations. 8. Q. Name some NONVERBAL cries for help that a supervisor should be aware of: A. (1) A good performer consistently begins to perform below par. (2) A normally attentive person suddenly displays a lack of attentiveness or concentration. (3) A soldier performs deliberate acts of misconduct, or refuses to follow instructions or orders. (4) A normally outgoing soldier becomes withdrawn and a loner. 9. Q. What are the five steps in preparing for a formal counseling session? A. (1) advanced notification. 47 (2) selection of a site. (3) schedule of time. (4) general outline. (5) generally relaxed atmosphere. 10. Q. What is follow-up action? A. This action a leader must take to ensure that acounseling session was effective and/or helpful to thecounselee. If there has been no improvement, morecounseling sessions may be necessary. 11 . Q. What are pitfalls in counseling? A. A pitfall is a hidden or not easily recognized danger or difficulty. Likes, dislikes, biases, and prejudices arepotential pitfalls which may interfere with thecounseling relationship between the leader and thesoldier. COUNTERGUERRILLA OPERATIONS Reference: FM 31-16 1. Q. What is populace and resources control? A. These are actions undertaken by a government to controlthe populace and its material resources or to deny accessto those resources which would further hostile aims andobjectives against that government. 2. Q. What are stability operations? A. It can be described as the full range of Internal Defenseand Development operations and assistance which the USArmy can employ to maintain:, restore, or establish aclimate of order within which government under law canfunction eff~ctively and ~ithout which progress inmodernizationicannot be achieved. 3. Q. What are irregular forces? A. Armed individuals or groups who are not members of theregular armed forces, police, or other internal security forces. 4. Q. What are guerrilla operations? A. They are tactical operations which utilize tacticscharacterized i by surprise; brief, violent action; andelusiveness, and which may be supported entirely fromresources within the operational area or in varyingdegrees by external sources. 48 5. Q. What are counterguerrilla operations? A. Operations and activities conducted by military forces and non-military agencies to defeat hostile forces employing guerrilla operations tactics. 6. Q. What is internal defense? A. It is the full range of measures taken by a constituted government and its allies to free and protect its society from subversion, lawlessness, and insurgency. 7. Q. What is meant by internal development? A. It is the strengthening of the roots, functions, and capabilities of government and the viability of the nationa 1 1i fe of a country toward the end of i nte rna1 independence and freedom from conditions fostering insurgency. 8. Q. What is guerrilla warfare? Guerr i 11 a warfare is mi 1i tary and parami 1 i tary operationsA. conducted on enemy-held or hostile territory by irregular, predominantly local forces. DRILL AND CEREMONIES Reference: FM 22-5 1. Q. What is meant by drill? A. Drill consists of certain movements by which a unit of individuals are moved in an orderly uniform manner from one formation to another, or from one place to another. 2. Q. What is meant by a ceremony? Ceremonies are formations and movements in which a number A. of troops execute movements in unison and with precision just as in dri 11; however, their primary value is to render honors, preserve tradition, and stimulate esprit de corps. 3. Q. What is an element? A. An element is an individual, squad, section, platoon, company or larger unit forming as part of the next higher unit. 4. Q. What is meant by interval? A. Interval is the lateral space between elements. 5. Q. Name three types of interval. A. The three types of interval are normal, close, and 49 double. 6. Q. What is distance? A. It is the space between elements when the elements are one behind the other. 7 . Q. What are the two types of formations? A. The two types of formations are the line and column. 8. Q. What is a ra1nk? A. A rank is a line which is only one element in depth. 9. Q. What is a file? A. A file is a column which has a front of only one element. 10. Q. What is meant by alinement? A. The arrangement of several elements on the same line. 1 1 . Q. What is cover? A. Cover is aligning yourself directly behind the man to your immediate front while maintaining correct distance. 1 2 . Q. What is the head? I I A. The head is the leading element of a column. 13. Q. What is meant by flank? A. Flank is the right or left side of any formation as sensed by an. element within that formation. 14. Q. What is front? A. Front is the space from side to side of a formation including the right and left elements. 15 . Q. What is meant by depth? A. Depth is the space from front to rear of a formation including the front and rear' elements. 1 6 . Q. What is meant by post? A. Post is the correct place for an officer or noncommissioned officer to stand in a prescribedformation. 17. Q. What is a guide? A. The guide is the person responsible for maintaining the prescribed direction and rate of march. 18. Q. What is cadence? A. Cadence is the uniform rhythm in which a movement is executed, or I the number of steps or counts per minute at which the movement is executed. 19. Q. How many counts are there in quick time? A. 120 counts per minute. 50 20. Q, How many counts are there in double time? A. 180 counts per minute. 21 . Q. Most drill commands have two parts, what are they? A. The preparatory command and the command of execution. 22. Q. If a preparatory command was given incorrectly or is not appropriate, what command would you give to revoke it? A. As you were. 23. Q. Give an example of a combined command. A. Fall in, at ease, rest. 24. Q. What is a supplementary command? A. It is an oral order given by a subordinate leader that reinforce and complement a commander's order which insures proper understanding and execution of a movement. 25. Q. What is a directive? A. Directives are oral orders given by a commander that direct or cause a subordinate leader to take action. 26. Q. At what position do you have to be at to be given the command of parade rest? A. The position of attention. 27. Q. How many inches is a half-step? A. Approximately 15 inches. 28. Q. What is the only command you can give from inspection arms? A. Ready, port, arms. 29. Q. What is the length of the following steps? A. Forward is 30 inches, ha1f step is 15 inches, 1eft or right step is 15 inches, backward is 15 inches, and double time is 36 inches. 30. Q, What are the commands for rest movements while marching? A. At ease march, or route step march. 31 . Q. What command is given for marching backwards? A. Rear, march. 32. Q. When executed from the halt all steps in marching begin with the left foot except one. What is the exception? A. Right step, march. 33. Q. On what foot would you give the command halt? A. The command can be given as either foot strikes the ground. 51 34. Q. When doing left step,command halt? on what foot would you give the A. Right foot, when the heels are together. 35. Q. A. On what foot would you give halt when going right step.Left foot, when the heels are together. 36. Q. A. Which foot would Both feet. you turn on when doing a rear march?" 37. Q. A. What would you do if you should meet guard duty? Come to attention and present arms. an officer while on 38. Q. What rests are executed at the halt? A. Parade rest, rest, stand at ease, at ease, and fall out. NONCOMMISSIONED OFFICER EVALUATION REPORTS SYSTEM (NCO-ER) Reference: DA Circ 623-88-1 1 . Q. When wi 1 1 NCO-ERs not norma11 y be prepared for so1 d i ers? A. When the soldier is within four months of an approved voluntary retirement date. (DA Cir 623-88-1, para 2-2-a) 2. Q. When will a soldier departing on Temporary Duty (TOY) orSpecial Duty (SO) receive a change-of-rater evaluation report? A. a. When attending a resident course of instruction or training schedu1ed for 90 ca1endar days or more at a service school. b. When attending a civilian academic or traininginstitution on a full-time basis for a period of 90 calendar days or more. c. While performing duties under a different immediate supervisor or duties not related to his primary function in his parent unit for a period of 90 calendar days or more. (DA Cir 623-88-1, para 2-4-1) I 3 . Q. When is change-of-rater NCO-ER prepared? A. Whenever the designated rater is changed. In order to prepare the NCO-ER, the outgoing rater must be the rated soldier's first line supervi~or for a minimum of three months. The rater must also be senior to the rated soldier by either pay grade or date of rank. (DA Circ 623-88-1, para 2-8-a and 3-5-1-1&2) 52 4. Q. What is the minimum supervised rating period required to meet rater and indorser qualifications for initial, A. annual or The rater change-of-rater NCO-ERs? and indorser must be in the direct line of supervision for three months before an evaluation can be made, and the senior rater must be in the direct line of supervision and designated as the senior rater for a minumum of two rated months. (DA Circ 623-88-1, para 3 7-a-1) 5. Q. A. What is the minimum Three rated months. authorized time for a NCO-ER? (DA Circ 623-88-1, para 5-3) 6. Q. On what form in your Military Personnel is the date of the NCO-ER listed? Records Jacket A. DA Form 2-1. 7. Q. What qualifications are necessary in order for member to become a rater? a service A. First line supervisor months, pay grade E-5 soldier by date of rank for a minimum of three rated or higher, senior to the rated or pay grade. (DA Circ 623-88-1, para 3-5) 8. Q. What Department of the Army publication sets the policies and procedures governing the NCO-ER system? A. AR 623-88-1. 9. Q. A. What are the purposes of the NCO-ER? a. To strengthen the ability of the NCO Corps to meet the professional challenges of the future through the inculcation of Army values and basic NCO responsibilities. b. To insure the selection of the best qualified NCOs to serve in positions of increasing responsibility. c. To contribute to Army-wide improved performance and professional development. (DA Circ 623-88-1, para 1-5a-1 ,2&3) 10. Q. The NCO-ER program applies to soldiers in what pay A. grades? E-4 (corpora1s) through E-9. (DA Ci rc 623-88-1, Table 1-2) 11 . Q. How are rated individuals listed on a rating scheme? A. Name or duty position. 1 2 . Q. A. What are the types of NCO-ERs? First, annua1 , change of rater, speci a 1 , record, and re1 i ef for cause, and AT/ADT/ADWS/FTTD/ITAD. (DA Circ 623-88-1, comp1ete the re 1i ef from para 6-9-g) 53 13. Q. What is relief for cause? A. The removal of an NCO from a rateable assignment based on a decision by a member of the NCO's chain of command or supervisory chain that the NCO's personal or professional characteristics, conduct, or performance of duty warrant remova1 in the best interest of the U.S. Army. (DA Circ. 623-88-1, para 2-10) 14. Q. Are members of Allied Forces authorized to be in the rating chain for U.S. Army personnel? A. No. 15. Q. When can a commander appoint a U.S. civilian as a rater or senior rater? A. When a first line military supervisor is not available and the civilian supervisor is in the best position to evaluate the soldier's performance. (DA Circ 623-88-1, para 3-5-b) 16. Q. What is the first step in preparing a NCO-ER? A. Having the rater conduct a face-to-face performance counseling session with the rated soldier. (DA Circ 62388-1, para 3-3-a) 17. Q. When within the rating period is a performance counseling conducted? A. An initial face-to-face performance counseling wi 11 be conducted within the first 30 days of a rating period. For ARNG soldiers, a second counseling will be conducted sometime within the rating period. (DA Circ 623-88-1, para 3-3-c) 18. Q. What comments are forbidden to be made on a NCO-ER? A. I napp ropr i ate or arb i traty remarks re l ataed to race, color, religion, sex or national origin. Also, no mention can be made of any punitive or administrative action planned or tak~en against an NCO, although underlying misconduct which served as the basis of the action may be discussed. 19. Q. How will ratings for each trait on the EER be marked? A. Number 0 through 5. (AR 623-205, para 5-1) 20. Q. When may a rated NCO or other party appeal a NCO-ER? A. When either party believes the NCO-ER to be incorrect, inaccurate, or in violation of DA Circ 623-88-1. (DA Circ 623-88-1, para 4-2-c) 21. Q. Can an E-5 on the E-6 promotion list rate another E-5? A. Yes, provided that you are senior to the rater in day of rank. ( DA Ci rc 623-88-1, para 3-5-a-2) 54 22. Q. What are the qualifications a soldier must have to be a senior rater? A. He/she must be in a direct line of supervision to the rated soldier and have been designated as the senior rater for a minimum of two rated months, and be senior to the rater by pay grade or date of rank. (DA Circ 62388-1, para 3-7-a) 23. Q. Who is responsible for submitting an appeal of a NCO-ER? A. the rated NCO or another person who knows the circumstances of a rating. (DA Circ 623-88-1, para 4-2 c) 24. Q. What is the 1owest en1 i sted grade authorized to be a rater? A. E-5. 25. Q. Can three civilians serve as rater, senior rater, and reviewer? A. No. (DA Circ 623-88-1, para 3-9-d) FIELD SANITATION AND HYGIENE Reference: FM 21-10 1 • Q. What is hygiene? A. It is self-employment of practices which will keep one healthy. Among these practices are proper eating and body cleanliness. 2. Q. What is sanitation? A. It is the effective use of measures which will create and maintain healthful environmental conditions. Among these measures are the safeguarding of food and water and the control of disease-carrying insects and animals. 3. Q. What is meant by the term communicable disease? A. It means those illnesses which can be transmitted from person to person or from animal to person. 4. Q. Name some of the organisms which cause communicable diseases? A. They are classifies as viruses, rickettsiae, protozoa, bacteria, yeasts, molds, and worms. 5. Q. What are the classifications of communicable diseases? A. They are classified into five groups: respiratory, intestinal, insect-borne, venereal, and miscellaneous. 55 6. Q. A. 7 . Q. A. 8. Q. A. 9. Q. A. 10. Q. A. 1 1 . 12. 13. Q. A. Q. A. Q. A. 14. 1 5 . Q. A. Q. A. 16. Q. A. 17. Q. A. How are respiratory diseases transmitted? They are usually transmitted from person to person by discharges from the nose, mouth, throat, or lungs of an become contaminated with feces or urine from infected infected person. Examples are the common cold and influenza. How are intestinal diseases transmitted? They are usually transmitted by food or water which has an human or animal. How are insect-borne diseases transmitted? They are transmitted from person to person or from animal to person by insects. Define the term "carrier." A person who harbors disease organisms but who is not sick. Define the term "immunity." It is defined as the ability of a person to resist the invasion of disease germs. What are the two types of immunity? Natural and artificial. What is meant by potable water? Water which is safe for human consumption. What is meant by disinfection? Treatment with a chemical or by boiling to destroy disease-producing organisms. What should you use to purify your canteen water? Iodine tablets or calcium hypochlorite. What is an emersion heater? It is the standard field-type water heater. It is issued to all TOE units. What are the different types of waste? (1) Human waste (feces and urine). (2) Liquid waste (wash, bath, and liquid kitchen wastes). (3) Garbage. (4) Rubbish. When troops are on the march, what type of latrine is used? A "cat-hole" latrine. 56 18. Q. A. 19. Q. A. 20. Q. A. 21 . Q. A. 22. Q. A. 23. Q. A. 24. Q. A. 1. Q. A. 2 . Q. A. 3. Q. A. What devices are most generally human wastes? (1) Straddle trench latrine. (2) Deep pit latrine. (3) Burn-out latrine. (4) Mound latrine. (5) Bored hole latrine. (6) Pail latrine. (7) Urine soakage latrine used for disposal of What are the dimensions of a straddle trench latrine? It is 1 foot wide, 2 1/2 feet deep, and 4 feet long. What are some of the diseases that mosquitos transmit? Malaria, yellow fever, dengue fever, encephalitis, and filariasis. What is a more common name for encephalitis? Sleeping sickness. Name some louse-borne diseases? Typhus fever, relapsing fever, and trench foot. What are some of the diseases flies carry? Dysentery, and may carry those germs which cause cholera and typhoid. Name some flea-borne diseases? Plague and typhus fever. FIRST AID Reference: FM 21-11 What is first aid? It is the emergency care given to the sick, wounded, or injured before medical treatment can be administered by medical personnel. What ( 1 ) ( 2) ( 3) ( 4) What It is the means through which oxygen is taken into the body and carbon dioxide is expelled. are the four life saving steps? Open the airway and restore breathing and heartbeat Stop the bleeding Prevent shock Dress and bandage the wound to avoid infection is respiration? 57 4. Q. A. Name two ways to open the (1) The head-tilt method airway to restore breathing? (2) The jaw-lift method 5. Q. What are the two primary artificial respiration? methods of administering A. (1) Mouth-to-mouth (2) Chest-pressure arm-lift 6 . Q. Give the steps in mouth-to-mouth resuscitation? A. ( 1) Place the wounded person on his yourself at the side of his head back, position (2) Place one hand in back of the neck to maintain the head in the face-up position (3) Pinch the nostrils shut with you other hand (4) Take a deep victim's mouth breath and place your mouth over the (5) Blow into the victim's mouth forcefully to cause the soldier's chest to rise (6) When the victim's chest from the victim's mouth rises, remove your mouth 7. Q. What is closed chest heart massage? A. It is the rhythmical compression of the heart without surgically opening the chest. It is designed to provide artificial circulation in order to keep blood flowing to the brain and other organs until the heart begins to beat normally again. 8. Q. In on closed-chest heart massage, how the heart to make it pump blood? is pressure exerted A. As you depress the chest, pressure on the breastbone pushes the heart against the spine, thus forcing blood out of the heart and into the arteries. 9. Q. What is the preferred method of controlling severe bleeding? A. The preferred method is the use of the pressure dressing. 10. Q. Name three methods of controlling bleeding. A. Direct pressure, elevating the limb, and digital pressure. 11 . Q. If after a first aid pressure dressing is applied to a wound of the upper leg, becomes soaked with blood and the wound continues to b 1 eed, what should you do to control the bleeding? A. Apply a tourniquet to control the bleeding. 12. Q. Once a tourniquet has been applied, who may remove it? A. Only qualified medical personnel. 58 13. Q. Name some of the early symptoms of shock? A. Restlessness, thirst, pale skin, and a rapid heartbeat. 14. Q. How is a sucking chest wound made airtight? A. By placing apiece of plastic or foil directly over the wound so as to not allow air to enter. 15. Q. Name two type of fractures. A. Closed and open fracture. 16. Q. Why is a fracture immobilized? A. To prevent the razor sharp edges of the bone from moving and cutting tissue, muscle, blood vessels, and nerves. 1 7 . Q. What is the first thing you should do for minor burns? A. Immerse it or flush it with the coldest water available until the pain subsides. 18. Q. What causes heat exhaustion? A. It is caused by an excessive loss of salt and water from the body. 19 • Q. What are the symptoms of heat exhaustion? A. Headache, excessive sweating, weakness, dizziness, nausea, and muscle cramps. Also, the skin is pale, cool, moist, and clammy. 20. Q. What is the first aid for heat exhaustion? A. Lay the person in a cool shaded area and loosen the clothing. If the person is conscious, have the person drink 3 to 5 canteens full of water in a 12 hour period. 21. Q What causes heatstroke? A. Prolonged exposure to high temperature. This is a 1 so called "sunstroke." 22. Q. What are the symptoms of heatstroke? A. The first sign of heatstroke may be stoppage of sweating, which causes the skin to feel hot and dry. Collapse and unconsciousness may come suddenly or may be preceded by headache, dizziness, fast pulse, nausea, vomiting, and mental confusion. 23. Q. What is the first aid for heatstroke? A. (1) Immerse the person in the coldest water you can find (2) If this is not possible, put the person in a shady place, remove the clothing, and keep the entire body wet by pouring water all over the body (3) When the person becomes conscious, give the person cool water to drink 59 24. Q. A. 25. Q. A. 26. Q. A. 27. Q. A. 28. Q. A. 29. Q. A. 30. Q. A. 31. Q. A. 32. Q. A. 33. Q. A. What They legs, What are heatcramps? are painful spasms of the muscles, usually of the arms, and abdomen. are some of the illnesses caused by the cold? Trench foot, immersion foot, frostbite, and snow blindness. Name some of the one-man (1) Fireman's carry (2) Supporting carry (3) Arms carry (4) Saddleback carry (5) Pack-strap carry (6) (7) (8) Name (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) What Pistol-belt carry Pistol-belt drag Neck drag some of the two-man carries of injured persons. carries. Two-man supporting carry Two-man arms carry Two-man fore and aft carry four-hand carry Two-hand seat carry is psychological first aid? It is nothing more complicated than helping people with emotional injuries whether they result from physical injuries, disease, or excessive or unbearable strain on their emotions. Who carries the first packet into combat? Each individual soldier. What is self aid? The emergency treatment one applies to oneself. Name three types of bleeding. ( 1 ) Arteri a 1 (2) Venous (3) Capillary After you have applied a tourniquet to a person how should you mark that person to let other personnel know that a tourniquet has been applied? If possible mark him with a "T" on the forehead and indicate the time that the tourniquet was applied. What are the signs and symptoms of a poss i b 1 e head injury? (1) Is or has recently been unconscious 60 34. Q. A. 35. Q. A. 36. Q. A. 37. Q. A. 38. Q. A. 39. Q. A. 40. Q. A. (2) Has blood or other fluid escaping from nose or ears (3) Has a slow pulse (4) Has a headache (5) Is nauseated or is vomiting (6) Has had a convulsion (7) Is breathing very slowly What is a closed fracture? It is a break in the bone without a break in the overlying tissue. What is an open fracture? It is a break in the bone as well as a break in the overlying skin. What is the proven principle and rule for splinting a broken bone? Splint them where they lie. What is the first-aid when caustic or irritating material such as battery acid enters the eyes? Immediately flush the eyes with a large volume of water. What is trench foot? It is an injury which results from fairly long exposure of the feet to wet conditions, generally at temperature from approximately freezing to 50 degrees F. What is the treatment for frostbite involving only the skin? {1) PARTS OF THE FACE-Cover the frostbitten part with your warm hands until pain returns. (2) HANDS -Placed the bare hands next to the skin in the opposite armpits. (3) FEET -In the most sheltered area available, place the bare feet under the clothing and against the abdomen of another soldier. What are the measures you take when deep frostbite occurs? (1) Get to a medical treatment facility by the fastest means possible. (2) Protect the frostbitten part from additional injury, but do not attempt to treat it or thaw it in any way. 61 FLAGS AND GUIDONS Reference: AR 840-10 1 • o. What are the three sizes of the American flag? A. (1) STORM: 5 feet by 9 1/2 feet. (2) POST: 10 feet by 19 feet. (3) GARRISON: 20 feet by 38 feet. 2. Q. What do the 13 strips on the American flag represent? A. They represent the 13 or i gina1 states which contended for and received their independence. '? Q. What do the colors of the flag symbolize? -..). A. White is for purity and innocence, red is for hardiness and valor, and blue is for vigilance and justice. 4. Q. Describe the Union Jack? A. A flag of blue bunting with 50 white stars. 5 . 0. When and where 1s the Union Jack flown: A. The Union Jack is flown on ships at anchor or tied up at pier. 6. Q. What are the three sizes of the Union Jack? A. (1) 4.82 feet by 6.80 feet. (2) 2.69 feet by 3.80 feet. (3) 1.88 feet by 2.66 feet. 7 . Q. What is a guidon? A. Guidons are unit markers for companies, tatteries, troops, and certain designated detachments and units. 8. Q. What is the size of a guidon? A. Guidons are 1 foot 8 inches on the flagstaff aiid 2 feat 3 3/4 inches from the flagstaff to the swallm<~tai 1 fcrke·j 10 inches. 9. Q. How tall are the flagpoles for permanent installations? A. They are 50 feet, 60 feet, and 75 feet. 10. Q. How tall are the flagpoles for temporary installations? A. 50 feet. 11 . Q. What is known as the hoist of the flag? A. The width. 12. Q. What is known as the fly of the flag? A. The length. 62 13. Q. What is the ball on top of the flagpole called? A. The truck. 14. Q. When a number of flags, including the American flag are displayed in a row, what position does the American flag take? A. The American flag will ge at the right of the line; i.e., the left of the observer facing the display. 15. Q. How is the American flag raised to the half-staff position? A. It is hoisted to the top of the flagpole then lowered to the half-staff position. 1 6 . Q. How is the American flag lowered from the half-staff position? A. It is first raised to the top of the flagpole then lowered. 17 . Q. When the American flag is worn out, how is it disposed of? A. It will be destroyed as a whole, privately, preferable by burning or by some other method lacking in any suggestion of irreverence or disrespect. 18. Q. Where is the flag flown at night by specific legal authority as of January 1966? A. (1) US Capitol, Washington (2) Fort McHenry National Monument (3) Historical Shrine, Flag House Square, Baltimore, Maryland (4) World War Memorial, Worcester, Mass 19. Q. Does the American flag ever dip when passing in review? A. Never. 20. Q. What are the three other names used in military service for the flag of the United States? A. (1) COLOR: A flag carried by dismounted units, supreme commanders, and certain General officers. (2) STANDARD: A flag carried by mounted, mechanized, or motorized units. (3) ENSIGN: A flag on ships, small boats, and airships. 21. Q. When can the American flag be flown upside down? A. When there is an emergency and you wish to alert someone. 22. Q. How many stripes does the flag have and how are they arranged? A. There are 13 stripes, seven read and six white. The first and last stripes are red. 63 23. Q. How many stars are there on the American flag and what do they represent? A. There are 50 stars and each star represents a different state of the Union. GUARD DUTY Reference: FM 22-6 1 • Q. A. What is a countersign? A countersign consists of two words: the secret challenge and its password. 2. Q. A. What is a challenge? The first word or part of the countersign, used to challenge a person or party. It is disseminated onlyfriendly personnel. to 3. Q. A. What is a password? A secret word or distinctive sound used to reply to a challenge. The second word or part of a countersign. 4. Q. A. What is the interior guard? The interior guard is detailed by commanders of militaryinstallations to protect property and enforce specificmilitary regulations. 5 . Q, A. What are the elements of the The elements of the interior according to their purpose. and the special guards. interior guard? guard are classified It includes the main guard 6 . Q. A. What are the main guard and the special guards used for? The main guard consists of a combination qf patrols and fixed posts. Special guards are used to protect parks,trains, boats, aircraft and for other special purposes. 7. Q. A. What comprises the exterior guard? The exterior guard consists of lookouts, listening posts, outposts, specifically designated patrols, and other guards in combat zones, field training areas, and guardsoutside the limits of a military installation. 8. Q. A guard on are they? post is governed by two types of orders;what 64 A. General orders and special orders. 9. Q. How do general orders differ from special orders? A. General orders outline the fundamental responsibilities of a guard while special orders instruct a guard in the actual performance of his duty while on a particular post. 10. Q. What are your general orders? A. (1) I will guard everything within the limits of my post and quit my post only when properly relieved. (2) I will obey my special orders and perform all my duties in a military manner. (3) I will report violations of my special orders, emergencies, and anything not covered in my instructions, to the commander of the relief. 11 . Q. What is a parole word? A. It is a secret word imparted only to those persons entitled to inspect the guard and to commanders and members of the guard. 12. Q. What does the sentry say when challenging someone? A. Halt! Who is there or who goes there. 13. Q. What is a supernumerary? A. It is an extra member of the guard who is used when needed to replace a guard or perform duties prescribed by local directives. 14. Q. Recite the general orders. A. 1. I will guard everything within the limits of my post and quit my post only when properly relieved 2. I will obey my special orders and perform my duties in a military manner. 3. I wi 11 report violations of my special orders, emergencies, and anything not covered in my instructions, to the Commander of the relief. LAW OF LAND WARFARE Reference: FM 27-10 1 • Q. What is the distinctive emblem of the Geneva Conference? A. A white flag with a red cross. 2. Q. When a soldier becomes a prisoner of war, he is bound to give, only what information? A. Surname, first name, rank, date of birth, and service number. 65 3. Q. If a prisoner refuses to give the information he is bound to give, what could happen? A. If a person infringes this rule, he may render himself liable to a restriction of the privileges accorded to his rank or status. 4. Q. What can happen to a prisoner who refuses to answer questions? A. Nothing can happen. No physical or mental torture, not any other form of coercion, may be inflicted on prisonersof war to secure from them information of any k"i nd whatever. 5. Q•. What happens to the property of prisoners of war? A. All effects and articles of personal use, except arms,horses, military equipment and military documents shall remain in the possession of prisoners of war, 1 il<;ewise their metal helmets and gas masks and like articles issued for personal protection. Things which must be furnished prisonersof war: A. (1) Food-The basic daily food rations shall be sufficient in quantity quality and variety to keepprisoners of war in good health and prevent loss of weight or the development of nutritional deficiencies. (2) Quarters-Prisoners of war shall be quartered ~nder conditions as favorable as those for the forces of the Detaining Power who are billeted in the same area. (3) Clothing-Clothing, underwear and footwear shall be supplied to,prisoners of war in sufficient quantities bythe Detaining Power, which shall make allowance for the climate of the region where the prisoners are detained. 7. Q. What medical attention will be given to prisoners of war? A. Every camp :shall have an adequate infirmary where prisoners of war may have the attention they require as well as app~opriate diet. 8. Q. What religious freedoms do prisoners of war have? A. Prisoners of war shall enjoy complete latitude in the exercise of their religious duties including attendance at the service of their faith, on condition that they comply with the disciplinary routine prescribed by the military authorities. 9. o. What is the minimum number of letters you are allowed to write as a prisoner of war? A •. Not less than two letters and four cards per month. 10. Q. What is a war crime? 66 A. It is a technical expression for of war by any person or persons, Every violation of the law of war 11 . Q. What are the sources for the Law a violation of the 1aw military or civilian. is a war crime. of War? A. The sources are Lawmaking Treaties and Conventions and Customs of Anglo-American common law. 12. Q. What is the main purpose of the Geneva Conference? A. In general, the rules provide that prisoners of war must be treated humanely. Specifically forbidden are "violence to life and person .....cruel treatment, and torture .....outrages upon personal dignity, in particular humiliating and degrading treatment. LEADERSHIP Reference: FM 22-100 1 • Q. What is the ultimate objective of military leadership? A. The successful accomplishment of the mission. 2. 0. What is meant by Command? A. It is the authority a person in the military service lawfully exercises over subordinates by virtue of his rank and assignment or position. 3. Q. What is leadership? A. Military leadership is the process of influencing persons in such a manner as to accomplish the missio~. 4. Q. What are the ·leadership traits? A. (a) Bearing (b) Courage (both moral and physical) (c) Decisiveness (d) Dependability (e) Endurance (f) Enthusiasm (g) Initiative (h) Integrity (i) Judgment (j) Justice (k) Knowledge (1) Loyalty (m) Tact (n) Unselfishness 5. Q. What are the leadership principles? A. (a) Know yourself and seek self improvement. (b) Seek responsibility and take responsibility for your 67 actions (c) (d) (e) Be technically and tactically proficient.Make sound and timely decisions. Set the example (f) Know welfare. your subordinates and look out for their (g) Keep your people informed. (h) Develop subordinates. a sense of responsibility in your (i) Insure that the task accomplished. is understood, supervised, and (j) Train your soldiers as a team. (k) Employ your unit in accordance capabilities. with its 6. Q. A. Why is professionalism important in the military?There are two significant reasons why professionalism is important in the military. First, the military leader is a public servant responsible for the defense of the nation. Second, the military organization is often responsible for the life of its soldiers. In combat, a leader may have to take risks which endanger the lives of his men in order to accomplish the mission. 7. Q. A. What are leadership actions and orders? Anything a leader does or says to enable influence and direct his command. him to 8. Q. A. What is management of the leader defined as? The process of planning, organizing, coordinating,directing, and controlling resources such as men,material, time, and money to accomplish the organizational mission. 9. Q. A. What is bearing? It is a person's generaldeportment, and conduct. appearance, carriage, 10. Q. A. What is courage? It is a mental quality that recognizes fear of danger or criticism, but enables a person to proceed in the face of it with calmness and firmness. It is a quality of mind that gives a person control over fear, enablinghim/her to accept responsibility and act properly in a threatening situation. 11 • Q. What is decisiveness? A. It is the ability to make decisions promptly state them in a clear, forceful manner. and to 12. Q. A. What This is dependability? is the certainty of proper performance of duty. 68 13. Q. What is endurance? A. It is the mental and physical stamina measured by the ability to withstand pain, fatigue, stress, and hardship. 14. Q. What is enthusiasm? A. It is the display of sincere interest and zeal in the performance of duties. 15 . Q. What is initiative? A. It is the ability to take action in the absence of orders. 16. Q. What is integrity? A. It is the uprightness and soundness of moral principles, and a quality of truthfulness and honesty. 17. Q. What is judgment? A. It is the capacity to make sound and reasonable decisions. 18. Q. What is justice? A. It is the fair treatment of a 11 peop1 e regard1ess of race, religion, color, sex, age, or national origin. 19. Q. What is loyalty? A. It is the quality of being steadfast in allegiance to one's homeland, government, sovereign; faithful to superiors, subordinates, and peers. 20. Q. What is tact? A. It is a sensitive perception of people, their values, feelings, and views, which allows positive interaction. 21. Q. What is unselfishness? A. It is the ability of the leader to provide for the comfort and personal advancement of others at the expense of his own comfort and personal advancement. 22. Q. What are human needs? A. They are the things which are necessary for his physical, spiritual, mental, and emotional stability. ')":) Q. Human needs are broken down into categories; What are '-'"' . the categories and the needs within each? A. PHYSICAL NEEDS: food, water, shelter, sleep, and elimination of body waste LEARNED NEEDS: safety, social acceptance, money, self-fulfillment. 24. MOTIVATING PERFORMANCE: Because everyone has different needs, 69 the question for the leader is not, "How can people be motivated, but how can the motives of his soldiers be channeled towards attaining the desired results?" To answer this question, consider these factors which i nf 1uence the individual to perform well: His feeling that he can succeed if he tries. His feeling that he will be recognized for trying, tangibly or intangibly. His value of that recognition. His estimate of the probability that he will be punished, if he does not try. Experience shows that a man wi 11 have 1ittle motivation to try something he thinks that he cannot do. The leader must know his men's capabilities and establish challenging attainable goals within these capabilities. He can build the men's confidence in himself by offering support, encouragement, assistance, and by indicating that a man wi~l not be punished if he gives his best effort and fails. This is important because on d iff i cu 1t tasks, men encouraged tc keep trying may u1 t i mate 1 y succeed; without encou ragemen't., they may simply quit. 25. Q. What is formal communication in the US Army? K.• This system of communication is the chain of command which carries official information. 26. Q. Name three informal communications systems. A. (1) LATERAL SYSTEM-This is the exchange of information between leaders or staff members of equal levels in the organization. (2) SOCIAL SYSTEM -Membership in this system is based on social position within the unit. (3) GRAPEVINE -This uses the others in combinaticn to pass on information. 27. Q. What is counseling? A. It is the art of communicating advice, instruction, cr judgment, with the intent of influencing a person'sattitude or behavior. 28. Q. How many types of counseling are there? A. There are four: Performance counseling, personalcounseling, professional counseling, and career counseling. 29. Q. What is performance counseling? A. It is to assist in improving the job performance of a person or a unit. 30. Q. What is personal counseling? 70 A. It is the type of counseling which is used to help a person reach a solution to a personal problem which pertains to himself. 31. Q. What is professional counseling? A. This is the type of counse1i ng conducted by personne1 who are qualified in specialized fields such as medicine, law, religion, or finance. 32. Q. What is career counseling? A. This is the type of counseling which informs men concerning a career in the Army. MAP READING Reference: FM 21-26, 21-30, 21-31 1 • Q. What is a map? A. A map is a mathematically determined graphic representation of a portion of the earth's surface drawn to scale. 2. Q. What is meant by the scale of a map? A. The scale is expressed as a fraction and gives the ratio of map distance to ground distance. 3. Q. What are the three scales of maps? A. Small, medium, and large scale. Where is the sheet name of a map found? 4. Q. A. It is found in two places on the map. The center of the upper margin and the right side of the lower margin. 5 . Q. What is the sheet number? A. The sheet number is used as a reference number for that map sheet. 6. Q. What are bar scales used for? A. They are rulers used to convert map distance to ground distance. 7. Q. What is the grid note? A. It gives information pertaining to the grid system used, the interval of grid lines, and the number of digits omitted from the grid values. 8. Q. What is the legend? 71 A. It illustrates and identifies the topographic symbols used to depict some of the more prominent features onthe map. The symbols are not always the same on every map. 9. Q. What is the declination diagram? A. It indicates the angular relationships of true north,grid north, and magnetic north. 10. Q. What is a contour interval? A. It states the vertical distance between adjacent contourlines of the map. 11 . Q. What are the colors used on a military map and for what are they used? A. Black is used for the majority of cultural or manmadefeatures; b1ue is for water features such as 1akes,rivers, and swamps; green is for vegetation such aswoods, orchards, and vineyards; brown is for all relieffeatures such as contours; and red is for main roads,built-up areas, and special features. 12. Q. What is latitude? A. The distance of a point north or south of the equator. 13 . Q. What is longitude? A. This is a set pf rings around the glove at right anglesto the lines of latitude and are running east and west. 14. Q. What is an azimuth? A. An azimuth is defined as a horizontal angle, measured in a clockwise mahner from a north base line. 15. Q. What is a back. azimuth? A. It is the reverse direction of an azimuth. 16 . Q. What is the ru~e for computing back azimuths? A. To obtain a badk azimuth from an azimuth, add 180 degreesif the azimuthfis 180 degrees or more. The back azimuthof 180 degrees may be stated as either 0 degrees or 360 1 degrees. • 17. Q. What types of compasses does the military use? A. The mi 1i tary u'sed 2 types: the 1ensati c compass, and the artillery compass. 18. Q. When rotating the beze1 ring of the 1ensati c compass, 1 how many degrees does the setting change for each click heard? A. It changes 3 degrees. 19. Q. Compass readings shou1 d never be taken near visi b 1 e 72 masses of iron or electrical circuits. The following are suggested as approximate safe distances to insure proper functioning of the compass: High tension power lines...............................55 meters Field gun, truck or tank ...............................18 meters Telegraph and telephone wires and barbed wire ..........10 meters Machine gun .............................................2 meters Helmet or rifle.........................................5 meters Nonmagnetic meta1 s and a 11oys do not affect compass readings. 20. Q. What is orientation of a map? A. A map is oriented when it is in a horizontal position with its north and south corresponding to north and south of the ground. 21. Q. What is the simplest way of orienting a map to the ground? A. With the lensatic compass. 22. Q. What is intersection? A. The location of an unknown point by successively occupying at least two but preferably three known positions and sighting on an unknown point. 23. Q. What is meant by resection? A. The location of the user's unknown position by sighting on two or three known features. 24. Q. What is a datum plane? A. This is a reference from which vertical measurements are taken. The datum plane for most maps is mean or average sea level. 25. Q. What is meant by elevation? A. This is defined as the height (vertical distance) of an object above or below a datum plane. 26. Q. What is relief? A. Relief is the representation of the shape and height of landform and the characterization of the earth's surface. 27. Q. What is the most common way representing elevation and relief on a map? A. With contour lines. 28. Q. What do contour lines indicate? A. They indicate a verti ca1 distance above or be1ow the datum plane. 73 29. Q. How is direction expressed on a map? A. It is expressed as units of angular measure. 30. Q. Describe what is meant by true north, magnetic north,and grid north. A. (1) TRUE NORTH-a line from any position on the earth'ssurface to the north po 1e. A11 lines of longitude aretrue north lines. True north is usually symbolized by a star. (2) MAGNETIC NORTH -the direction to the north magneticpole, as indicated by the north-seeking needle of amagnetic instrument. Magnetic north is usua 11 ysymbolized by the arrowhead. ( 3) GRID NORTH -the north that is established by the vertical grid lines on the map. Grid north ma; besymbolized by the letters GN or the letter y. 31 • Q. The spacing of contour lines indicates the nature of theslope. Consider the following: (1) Contour lines evenly spaced and wide apart indicate a uniform gentle slope. See figure 3-1. (2) Contour lines evenly spaced and close together indicate a uniform, steep slope. See figure 3-2. (3) Contour lines closely spaced at the top and widelyspaced at the bottom indicate a convex slope. See figure3-3. (4) Contour lines widely spaced at the top and closelyspaced at the bottom indicate a convex slope. See figure3-4. 32. Q. Each of the following figures shows a sketch and map withthe different relief features and its characteristiccontour pattern. Know them for a good understanding of how land mass is represented on a map. HILL-A point or small area of high ground. See figure 3-5. VALLEY -A str~am course which has at least a limited extent of reasonably level ground bordered on the sidesby higher ground. See figure 3-6. DRAW -A less developed stream course in which there isessentially no ilevel ground and therefore, little or nomaneuver room. See figure 3-6. RIDGE -A 1ine of high ground, with normally minor variations along the crest. See figure 3-7. 74 SPUR -A usually short, continuously sloping 1ine of· higher ground normally jutting out from the side of ~ ridge. See figure 3-7. SADDLE -A dip or low point along the crest of a ridge, See figure 3-8. DEPRESSION -A low point or sinkhole, surrounded on all sides by higher ground. See figure 3-9. CUTS AND FILLS -Manmade features by which the bed of a road or rai 1road is graded or leveled off by cutting through high areas and filling low areas. See figure 3-, 10. CLIFF -A vertical or near vertical slope. 33. Q. What is a map overlay? A. It is a transparent or trans1ucent medi urn upon which special military information had been plotted at the ~ame scale of a map, photograph or other graphic. 34. Q. What is an aerial photograph? A. It is a photograph taken from an airborne• vehicle (aircraft, drones, balloon, satellites, etc.). 35. Q. How is a map read? A. A map is read to the right and up. 36. Q. What is a military symbol for a map? A. It is a sign, composed of a diagram, number, letter, abbreviation, color or combination thereof, which is used to identify and distinguish a particular military unit, activity or installation. · 37. Q. On military map overlays the following colors are used to designate the indicated activities: A. Blue or black denotes friendly units, installations, equipment, and activities. Red denotes enemy units, installations, equipment, and activities. Yellow denotes friendly or enemy areas of chemical, biological pr radiological contamination. Green denotes friendly or enemy man-made obstacles. 38. Q. What is a mosaic of aerial photographs? A. It is an assemblage of as many aerial photographs as may be required to cover the area concerned. 39. Q. What is a photomap? A. It is a reproduction of a photograph or mosaic upon which grid lines, marginal data, place names and other 75 overprint information have been added. 40. Q. What is a pictomap? A. It is a refinement of the photomap on which the tones andimagery of the photomosaic are converted into colors andsymbols. 41. Q. The following topographic map symbols should be knownwhen appearing before any type of board: PLEASE SEE PAGES 76A-H 42. Q. What is a military symbol? A. A mi 1itary symbol is a sign, composed of a diagram,number, letter, abbreviation, color or combinationthereof, wh1ich .is used to identify and distinguish aparticular military unit, activity, or installation. 43. Q. What do military symbols consist of? A. They consist of (1) the basic symbol, (2) the unit sizesymbol, (3) branch and/or duty performed, (4) unit, installation, or activity designation, and (5) otherinformation as required. See figure 3-11. 76 Figure 8·9. Map symbols. 1. ROAD JUNCTION -WHERE ONE ROAD JOINS ANOTHER. 2. ROAD INTERSECTION-WHERE ONE ROAD CROSSES ANOTHER. (1) CUT (2) FILL 76A FM 21-26------------------------ Figure B-9. Continued. 3. CURVE -A BEND IN THE ROAD. 4. DEAD END -WHERE THE ROAD STOPS WITH NO OUTLETS. 5. TRAIL JUNCTION -WHERE TWO TRAILS JOIN. 6. TRAIL DEAD END -WHERE THE TRAIL STOPS. 7. TRAIL CURVE 76B FM 21-26 Figure B-9. Continued. 8. ROAD AND TRAIL JUNCTION -WHERE A ROAD INTERSECTS WITH TWO TRAILS. 9. ROAD AND TRAIL INTERS£CTtON -WHERE A ROAD CROSSES A TRAIL. 10. INTERMITTENT STREAM JUNCTION 11. STREAM JUNCTION 12. BEND IN STREAM 76C FM 21-26--------------------- Figure B-9. Continued. 13. POND'S EASTERNMOST POINT 14. POND 15. OUTLET-WHERE WATER FLOWS OUT OF POND. 16. INLET-WHERE WATER RUNS INTO A POND. 17. MARSHY ORSWAMPY POND 76D ---------------------------------------------------------FM21-26 Figure B-9. Continued. 18. TRAIL AND STREAM INTERSECTION-WHERE A TRAIL CROSSES A STREAM (IN MOST CASES, THERE IS NO BRIDGE) 19. ISLAND -LAND SURROUNDED BY WATER. 20. HILLTOP-THE HIGHEST ELEVATION OF A LANDMARK. 21. RIDGE-THE TRAIL FOLLOWS THE PATH OF A RIDGE. 22. SADDLE -THE LOW POINT BETWEEN TWO OR MORE POINTS OF HIGHER GROUND. 76E FM 21-26----------------------- Figure B-9. Continued. 23. STEEP SIDE OF AHILL 24. DRAWS 25. SPUR 26. DRAW OR BEGINNING OF A VALLEY 27. SEMILEVEL GROUND ALONG THEPATH OF A RIDGE 76F ---------------------FM21-26 Figure B-9. Continued. 28. JUNCTION OF STREAMS -lWO INTER MITTENT STREAMS JOIN ANOTHER STREAM. 29. VALLEY-IN BOTH DIRECTIONS OF A CREEK. 30. CREEK JUNCTION 31. DRAW WITH INTERMITTENT STREAM 32. HILL TOP 76G FM 21-26----------------------- Figure B-9. Continued. 33. VALLEY 34. SPOT ELEVATION \ 35. ORCHARD "221 36. MARSH OR SWAMP 37. DEPRESSION 76H 44. The following are basic and interservice symbols: PLEASE PAGES 77A-B 77 UNIT SIZE The size of units and installations is shown by placing the appropriate size indicator directly above the basic symbol. US Deacription Squad/craw Section or unit larger than a squad but smaller than a platoon Platoon or detachment Company, battery, or troop Battalion or squadron Group or regiment Brigade Division Corps Army STANAG 2019 Deacription Symbol Smallest unit/UK section • D Unit larger than a US squad/UK section but smaller than a platoon equivalent D Platoon/troop equivalent D Company/batteryI squadron equivalent D Battalion equivalent LJ Regiment/group equivalent u Brigade equivalent X D Division D Corps LJ Army t:J 77A US Description STANAG 2019 Description Symbol Army group or front Army group/front LJ Special size indicator for a nonorganic or temporary grouping Battalion task force e LJ Company team e LJ In addition to the size symbols shown above, the following apply to certain major commands located in the communications zone: Description Symbol Mission command. Normally assigned to the theater army, these commands, control groups, brigades, or other organizations support the theater. (Examples: Engineer, medical, transportation, personnel.) Area support group of a theater army area command (TAACOM) D Theater army area command (TAACOM) Theater army D 77B 45. The following are basic unit size symbols and should be committed to memory: PLEASE SEE PAGES 78A-B 78 BASIC AND INTERSERVICE Geometric figures form the basic symbol used to represent units, installations, and activities. Description Symbol Unit D Headquarters p Logistical, medical, or administrative installation 0 Combat service support element of a theater army D Combat service support element of a US corps D Combat service support element of a US combat unit {brigade trains and below) 78A Description Symbol Forces under national command -(associated with a size descriptor) D Electronic installation Observation post e For interservice use, Army, Air Force, Navy, and Marine Corps are distinguished as follows: Military symbols referring to Army units, installations, and activities have no special designation. Army logistical or administrative installation 0 Air Force units, installations, and activities are indicated by placing the symbol C>O within the basic symbol. Air Force logistical or administrative installation Q Naval units, installations, and activities are indicated by placing the symbol i within the basic symbol. Navy logistical or administrative installation Marine Corps units, installations, and activities are indicated by the symbol SSS placed in the basic symbol. Marine Corps logistical or administrative installation 78B 46. The following are basic branch symbols: PLEASE SEE PAGES 79A-D 79 Description Symbol Adjutant General (personnel services and administration) 0 Aerial observation ~ ~ Air Force Army (surveillance) Airborne 0 us NATO (normally associated with another branch/functional symbol) ~ ~ Air assault 0 (air assault unit that has sufficient aircraft to w w perform air assault missions) Air assault 0 (units organic or assigned to air assault divisions ~ [;;] and trained in air assault operations but without sufficient aircraft to perform air assault missions) Air cavalry ~ Air defense Q Amphibious B Amphibious engineer § Antiarmor rs21 79A Description Symbol Armor Armored cavalry Army aviation Rotary wing _______...... __ ·--------- Fixed wing Attack helicopter Bridging Cavalry or reconnaissance Chemical (NBC) Chemical (NBC decontamination) Chemical (reconnaissance) 79B [§] ~ ~ ~ ~ § 0 [X] I~I ~ Description Symbol Chemical (smoke generator) Civil Affairs (US only) Data processing unit Dental Engineer Electronic warfare Field artillery Finance/Pay Infantry I:r.. I @] - ~ EE3 Ir'l I 0!] [!] ~ ~ ~ -UuM________-----·----------- 79C Deacription Symbol Infantry Mechanized (cont) APC ~ t------------------------ *BIFV (mounted) [l@J t---------------------- *BIFV (dismounted) ~ *Seep. 2-72 Motorized rn Labor resources CD Maintenance 1>-<1 Medical EE Meteorological ~ Military Intelligence (at corps and below insert is CEWI) ~ Military Police ~ 79D 1 • Q. What do contour lines indicate? A. They indicate elevation and relief of terrain features. 2 . Q. What is a bearing? A. A bearing is an angle measured east or west from a north or south reference line. 3. Q. What is an azimuth? A. A horizontal angle, measured in a clockwise manner from a north base line. 4. Q. What is the rule for reading grid coordinates? A. Read right and up. 5. Q. Of the three methods used to indicate the direct i en "north" on a map name the two most commonly used by army personne1. A. Grid North Magnetic North 6. Q. What is a grid system? A. It is a system of vertical and horizontal lines forming squares used tc determine locations on a map. 7. Q. What is the outside line on the border of the map called? A. The neat line. 8. Q. What color is used to depict friendly forces on a military map overlay? A. Blue. 9. Q. What are the two methods of orienting a map? A. Aligning the map with prominent landmarks. Use of a compass. 10. Q. What is the symbol normally used to depict "true north" on a declination diagram? A. A star. 11 . Q. What does the color "yellow" indicate on ami 1itary map? A. A contaminated area. 12. Q. What is declination? A. The angu 1ar difference between true north and either magnetic or grid north. 13. Q. How many scales are there on a compass face? A. Two: one graduated in mils and the other in degrees. 14. Q. What does the graphic scale of a map tell us? A. It provides us with a highly accurate method for 80 measuring ground distance on a map. 15. Q. If you are traveling on an azimuth of 90 degrees, what direction are you traveling? A. East. 16. Q. What is a special _purpose map? A. A special purpose map is one that has been designed or modified to give information not covered on a standard map or to elaborate on a standard map. 17. Q. Name the two types of grid systems used by the military? A. 1) Universal Transverse Mercator (UTM) 2) Universal Polar Stereographic Grid (UPS) 18. Q. What is latitude? A. Latitude is the distance of a point north or south of the equator, going east to west. 19. Q. When the color red is used with a military symbol on a tactical map, what does the color represent? A. Enemy forces. 20. Q. What is the first consideration in the care of maps? A. Proper folding. 21. Q. What is meant by marginal data? A. Data found on the margin of a map which gives details of be technical nature that must be known if the map is to read correctly. 22. Q. In the absence of colors, how do you indicate enemy and friendly positions? A. Double line-enemy. Single line-friendly. 23. Q. What are the three types of slopes? A. Uniform Concave Convex 24. Q. If you see a symbol on a map that you are not familiar with, how do you determine what it is? A. Check the legend of the map. 25. Q. How many mils are there in a circle? A. 6,400. 26. Q. Define resection? A. Resection is the location of the user's unknown position by sighting on two or more know features. 27. Q. How many degrees does each c 1 i ck on the beze 1 of the 81 lensatic compass represent? A. Three degrees per clic~. 28. Q. What is an overlay? A. A transparent or translucent medium upon which specialmilitary information has been plotted at the same scale of a map, photograph, or other graphic. 29. Q. Contour lines will always cross a river or stream in a way which indicates either an upstream or downstream d i recti on. Of the two di recti ons mentioned, which is correct? A. Upstream. 30. Q. What do closely spaced contour lines indicate? A. Sharp slope (steep incline, drop-off, etc.). 31 . Q. What is the basic rule for computing a back azimuth? A. If the azimuth is more than 180 degrees, subtract 180 degrees. If the azimuth is less than 180 degrees, add 180 degrees. 32. Q. Placing a map so that magnetic north on the map coincides with magnetic north on the grbund is one way of doingwhat? A. Orienting the map. 33. Q. What two things can you use as a guide for trave1 i ng through an unknown area if you do not have a compass? A. Sun Stars 34. Q. How many meters are there in a grid square? A. 1,000 meters 35. Q. In preparing an overlay of a specific map area for combat operations, various abbreviations are used to indicate boundaries and limiting points. I will state the abbreviations and you respond with the meaning of each. A. FEBA -Forward Edge of the Battle Area MSR -Main Supply Route COPL -Combat Outpost Line LD -Line of Departure RSL -Reconnaissance and Security Line 36. Q. In what direction does the arrow on a compass alwayspoint? A. Magnetic North. 37. Q. Can a lensatic compass be used at night? A. Yes. 82 38. Q. Of the two types of compasses used in the army today, which type is most common among troop units? A. The lensatic compass. 39. Q. How close to your target will a 6 digit coordinate put you? A. Within 100 meters. 40. Q. What is a map? A. A geographical representation of a part of the earth's surface drawn to scale as seen from above. 41. Q. What is a military grid system? A. A network of squares formed by verti ca1 (north-south) and hor i zonta1 (east-west) 1 i nes and used to 1ocate an area or thing on a map. 42. Q. What is intersection? A. Locating an unknown point by successfully occupying two known positions and sighting on the unknown point. It is used primarily to locate features that do not appear on a map. 43. Q. Sometimes the "scale" on a map will be referred to by another term. What is that term? A. R~presentative fraction. 44. Q. What must be accomplished prior to plotting an azimuth on a map? A. Orient oneself to the map -with the terrain or with a compass. 45. Q. There are two precautions you must take when using a compass . What are they? A. Never take a compass reading near vis i b 1 e masses of meta1 . Never take a compass reading near any type of electrical circuits, power lines, etc. 46. Q. The colors used on nearly all maps have been standardized and each color tells us certain things. I will give you the color and you tell me what each represents. A. Black -Manmade objects. Blue -Water Green -Vegetation Brown-Contour lines and elevation Red-Main roads, built-up areas 47. Q. What does representative fraction mean when applied to map reading? A. It is the ratio of horizontal distance on a map to the corresponding horizontal distance on the ground. 83 48. Q. Why are maps important? A. When used correctly, a map can give accurate distances, locations, heights, best routes, key terrain features,and concealment and cover information. 49. Q. How close to your target wi 11 a four digit 9rid coordinate put you? A. Within 1000 meters. MILITARY HISTORY 1 • Q. When did Congress authorize an Army? A. The US Army was authorized on 14 June ~775 (Bicentennial Almanac, pg 24.) 2. Q. When and by what means was the Medal of Honer established? A. The Medal of Honor was established on 12 July 1862 by an Act of Congress. (The United States Army, Gene Gurney, pg 219, para 1) Q. When was the Military Academy at West Point established and who are some of the distinguished graduates of the Academy? A. The Academy was established o~ 16 Mar 1802. Some of the distinguished graduates include Generals Robert E. Lee,Ulysses S. Grant, Douglas 1 A. MacArth~r, Dwight D. Eisenhower and John J. Pershing. (The United States Army, by Gene Gurney, pg 76, para 2) 4. Q. What was the first permanent Military Intell1gence Unit and when was it established? A. The Military Intelligence Division of the Office of the Adjutant G~neral was established as the first permanentand continuous 'MI unit in 1'885. (The Army A l ma:~ac, copyrighted by the Stackpo1e Co. , pg 282, co 1 . ~ , para 3. ) 5 . Q. When was the National Security Act signed into law and what did it accomplish? A. The National Security Act was signed by President Truman on 26 July 1947. It established the Office of the Secretary of Defense, gave the Secretary of Defense cabinet status, and e~tablished separate departments of the Army, Navy and Air F6rce. Additionally, it established the Joint Chiefs of Staff. (Journal of US Army INSCOM, Vol I, Nr 9, dtd Jul 78, pg 25, col 2) 6. 0. What was the major significance of the National Defense 84 Act of 1916? A. The National Defense ACt of 1916 divided the Army into Regular Army, Volunteer Army, Organized Reserves and National Guard. (The New World Book of Knowledge Encyclopedia, Book 19, pg 174, para 3, item 20.) 7. Q. What monetary compensations are winners of the Medal of Honor entitled to? A. $100.00 per month for life. 8. Q. What military leader demanded "Send me men who can shoot and salute"? A. General John J. Pershing, in the First World War. 9. Q. How many Army General Officers have attained the rank of General of the Army (five star) and what are their names? A. Five Generals have attained the rank of General of the Army. They are: 1. Henry H. "Hap" Arnold 2. Omar N. Bradley 3. Dwight D. Eisenhower 4. Douglas A. MacArthur 5. George G. Marshall (Famous American Military Leaders of World War II, by the editors of the Army Times, Ch 1-9.) 10. Q. Who was the first Black General in US Army History and when was he appointed as General? A. General Benjamin 0. David was appointed on 25 October 1940. (Famous First Facts, pg 40, para 2.) 11 . Q. What was the first "honor badge" or decoration authorized for enlisted and noncommissioned officer grades in the US Army? A. The Order of the Purple Heart, a decoration for "mi 1 itary merit", was established by General George Washington on 7 August 1782. (Famous First Facts, pg 353, col 2, para 4.) 12. Q. When were Blacks officially allowed to join the US Army and what were their units called? A. On 22 May 1863, the War Department established a Bureau of Colored Troops to organize and supervise Black units assigned to the Army. The units were known as the United States Colored Troops and 180,000 Blacks served in this unit. (History of the United States Army, by Russell F. Weigley, pg 212.) 13. Q. What is the highest US Military decoration? (FM 21-13) A. The Meda1 of Honor -Awarded by the President of the United States. 85 14. Q. A. 15. Q. A. 16. Q. A. 17. Q. A. 18. Q. A. 19. Q. A. 20. Q. A. 21. Q. A. 22. Q. A. 23. Q. A. 24. Q. A. 25. Q. A. The Infantry is the oldest branch in the Army. What is the oldest insignia in the Army? The shell and flame presently used as the Ordnance Corps Insignia. It_was initially the Infantry's. Who was the first General to lead an American army? General George Washington. Who said, "I shall return" and where? General Douglas MacArthur in the Philippines. What was General MacARthur's rank at the time of his retirement? General of the Army (Five Star General). Who is the only us General promoted to the rank of 6 star General? George WaShington. What is the title of a 6 star general? General of the Armies. What is the purpose of the Geneva Convention? To provide for humane treatment for POW's. Under the Geneva Convention, what information are you required to give when captured? Name, rank, service number, and date of birth. What is the main purpose of the Geneva Convention rules covering the treatment of prisoners? In general., the rules provide the provide the prisoners must be treated humanely. Specifically forbidden are "Violence i.t.o Life and Person .. --cruel treatment and torture .. outrages on personal dignity," and in particular, humiliating and degrading treatment. Is a person entit1ed to worship as he or she p1eases under the Geneva Convention rules? Yes. When did the Code of Conduct come into It was written by General Eisenhower conflict, 17 August 1955. What happened on December 7, 1941? The Japanese attacked P~arl Harbor being? during the Korea 86 NUCLEAR, BIOLOGICAL, AND CHEMICAL DEFENSE AND WARFARE Reference: STP 3-54E2-SM, FM 3-100, FM 3-5, STP 21-1SMCT 1. OVERVIEW: The primary objective of the US Army is to win the To accomplish this objective, US first battle of the next war. forces must be ab1e to conduct successfu1 operations in which nuclear, biological, and chemical weapons are employed. United States national policy completely prohibits our use of bi o 1og i ca1 weapons; and requires that a 11 conventiona 1 means be severe1y tested and found adequate before our use of nuc 1ear weapons will be authorized. The approval for our initial use of nuclear and chemical weapons must come from the President of the If the threat nations decide that the initiation United States. of NBC warfare is to their advantage, they may use their full delivery capability for NBC weapons in a massive surprise attack to achieve maximum advantage. US Army units must be highly trained in and well equipped for NBC defense in order to survive this first attack and subsequent attacks and to continue to function effectively in an NBC environment. After this first use by threat forces, the support and exploitation of US retaliatory nuclear and chemical fires also requires an excellent NBC defense posture. 2. Q. What are the objective of NBC defense in the us Army? A. ( 1 ) To be prepared to fight and win in an NBC environment. ( 2) To reduce the impact of enemy employment of NBC weapons to the lowest degree possible, concerning the combat. ( 3) To successfully conduct sustained combat operations under NBC conditions. 3. Q. How do nuclear weapons cause casualties and material damage? A. Through the effects of blast, thermal radiation, and nuclear radiation. 4. Q. What is blast? A. It is a high-pressure wave after a nuclear detonation and moves outward from the fireball. This is the blast wave and is the cause of most of the destruction accompanying a nuclear burst. Q. What are the parts of nuclear radiation? 5. A. The parts are initial and residual nuclear radiation. '6. Q. What is initial nuclear radiation? 87 A. It is radiation that is emitted within the first min~teafter detonation. 7. Q. What is residual nuclear radiation? A. It is the radiation which lasts after the first minuteof a burst and consists primarily of fallout and neutroninduced radiation. 8. Q. There are several elements which are absolutely essentialto an effective NBC defensive system. Which is the most important? A. The most important is COMMAND EMPHASIS. Within this,all the others are likely to be neglected. 9 . Q. What is the best defense against a nuclear attack? A. Digging in. The deeper the .foxhole the better. 10. Q. What should you do if you are caught in the open when adetonation of a nuclear weapon occurs? A. You should: (1) Drop to prone position and·close your eyes. (2) If time permits before the ~rrival of the blast wave,turn your body so that you ~re.in a head on position. (3) Stick ·~our thumbs in esrs. · (4) Cover your face with your hands. Place arms under your body .. (5) Tuck yo~r head down into your shoulders; keep helmeton and your, face down. · ( 6) Stay down unti 1 the b ~ ast wave passes and debris stops falling. (7) Check ,fpr casualties and damaged equipment. ( 8) Centi nu~ the mission. , ' 11 . Q. What shou ldl, you do after a nuc 1ear attack? A. After a nuclear attack, sur~iving individuals secure andorganize e6uipment, repai~ a~d reinforce positions,assist casllla1ties, and be:g i'n to prepare or improveprotection against possible::fal•lout. 12. Q. What are blast wave injuries? A. The damage caused can range· from minor cuts and bruisesto broken bones, severe lace~ations, and critical damageto vital organs. ::' 13. Q, What causes radiation sickness? A. Exposure of the human body •,tci nuc 1ear radiation causesdamage to the cells which': are the basic structural components of all parts oft~~ bbdy. This damage is whatcauses radiation sickness. \ : 88 14. Q. What is the basic protection against a biological attack? A. Good field sanitation, personal hygiene, and keep immunizations up to date. Protective mask must be readily available and properly fitted. 15. Q. What is a vector? A. It is a mosquito or tick or any other living organism which may carry disease-causing microorganisms. 16. Q. What is the normal protection a soldier has against biological agents? A. The duty uniform and gloves. Covering the skin reduces the possibility of the agent entering the body through cuts and scratches and a 1so prevents disease-causing insects from reaching the skin. 17. Q. What are body defenses against biological agents? (1) Physical barriers-unbroken skin and mucus membranes A. (2) Natural immunity -this system is present at birth and includes white blood cells which engulf and destroy microorganisms and biochemical resistance factors such as enzymes that attack microorganisms and cause them to dissolve (3) Acquiring immunity -inoculation and vaccination. 18. Q. After a suspected biological attack, what action will be necessary? A. ( 1 ) Decontamination of personne1 , outdoor areas, and indoor areas (2) Guard against contamination (3) Report sickness promptly (4) Treat casualties What should be done when you come under enemy chemical 19. Q. attack? A. (1) Put on protective mask (2) Give the alarm (3) Assume MOPP 4. (4) Continue the mission. 20. Q. What are the conditions which require masking and assuming MOPP 4? A. (1) Artillery shells that explode less powerfully than H.E. rounds. ( 2) Aircraft or rocket-de1i vered bombs or containers that contain bomblets that pop rather than explode. (3) Aircraft that are spraying mist or fog. (4) A chemical alarm sounds. (5) For no obvious reason, they see or feel any of the following symptoms: 89 (a) A runny nose (b) A feeling of choking and tightness in the chestor the throat (c) Dimming of vision and difficulty in focusing theeyes on close objects (d) Irritation of the eyes (e) Difficulty in or increased rate of breathing 21. Q. Describe the field expedient procedure for unmasking whena chemical agent detector kit is not available? A. When no detector kit can be obtai ned, two or threeindividuals are selected to take a deep breath, hold it,break the seal on their masks, and keep their eyes wideopen for 15 seconds. They then clear their masks,reestablish the seal and wait for 10 minutes. If no symptoms appear after 10 minutes, the same individualsagain break the seal, take two or three breaths and clearand re~eal the mask. After another 10 minute wait, ifno symptoms have developed, th~se same individuals unmaskfor 5 minutes and the~ remask. After 10 minutes, if no symptoms have appeared, the remainder of the group cansafely unmask. However, they should all remain alert forthe appearance of any chemica1 symptoms. A11 testsshould be conducted in a shady area. 22. Q. What does MOPP stand for? A. Mission Oriented Protective Posture. 23. Q. What is the purpose of the Mission Oriented Protective Posture? A. It is a flexible system of protection against chemicalagents which is used in chemical warfare to facilitate mission accomplishment. 24. Q. Your eyes have been contaminated by chemica1 agents.Explain how you would decontaminate your eyes? A. Turn you face upward and using water from your canteen to repeatedly flush your eyes, insuring that water does not run onto clothing or into the other eye. 25. Q. What is the first-aid for nerve agent poisoning? A. It is the injection of a nerve agent antidote and thegiving of artificial respiration and resuscitation. 26. Q. What is the first-aid for blood agents? A. Put two amyl nitrite ampules in your gas mask or holdthem close to your nose. If symptoms persist, this treatment of two crushed ampules is repeated about every4 or 5 minutes until normal breathing returns or untila total of 8 ampules is used. 27. Q. What is an NBC 1 report? 90 A. It is a report used by the observing unit to report initial and subsequent data of nuclear, biological, or chemi~al attack. 28. Q. What is an NBC 2 report? A. It is a report used for passing evaluated data of an NBC attack. 29. Q. What is an NBC 3 report? A. It is a report used for immediate warning of expected NBC contamination. 30. Q. What is an NBC 4 report? A. It is a report prepared at company level reporting NBC hazards found by monitoring, survey, or reconnaissance. 31. Q. What is an NBC 5 report? A. Usually prepared at division, this report shows areas of actual contamination. 32. Q. What is the nomenclature of the Individual Decontaminating and Re-impregnating Kit? A. M13. 33. Q. You should have no trouble recognizing a nuclear attack. What is the first indication that you are under a nuclear attack? A. The first indication is a very bright flash of light, much brighter than sunlight. 34. Q. Name the hazards present in nuclear warfare? A. Heat, blast, and radiation. 35. Q. What is the heat and 1 i ght of the nuc1ear exp1os ion called? A. It is called thermal radiation. 36. Q. What is the simplest way of defending yourself against blast from a nuclear explosion? A. By getting down flat and covering your face to shield against the wind and flying objects. 37. Q. What are heat injuries called? A. They are called flash burns. 38. Q. What are the three types of nuclear explosions? A. Air, surface, and subsurface. 39. Q. What are the three types of radiation connected with a nuclear explosion? A. Alpha, beta, and gamma. 91 40. 0. What is a CBN marker? A. It is a right-angles isosceles triangle with a base ofapproximately 11 1/2 inches and sides of about 8 inches.The designate a contaminated area. 41 . o. Describe a chemical marker. A. It is right-angled isosceles triangle. The triangle isyellow with the red letters "GAS" on it. 42. o. Describe a biological marker. A. It is a right-angled isosceles triangle. The triangleis blue with the red letters "BIO" on it. 43. 0. Describe a nuclear marker. A. It is a right-angles isosceles triangle. The triangleis white with the black letters "ATOM" on it. 44. 0. When a germ or gas attack is recognized what action should you take? A. Stop breathing, put your mask on, c 1ear and check it,then give the alarm. 45. 0. What is the hand signal to notify your buddies of a germ or gas attack? A. Extend both arms straight out sideways with fists daub 1edfacing up and quickly moving the fists to the head andback to the starting position as many times as needed toalert your buddies. 46. o. What are some of the symptoms of nerve agent contamination? A. Headache, difficulty breathing, excessive saliva anddrooling, nausea, abdominal cramps, dizziness, pupilsshrink to a pinpoint, running nose, tightness of ch3st,j e r k i n g and t wi t'ch i n g musc1e s , i n v o 1 untary ~ r i nati on anddefecation. 47. Q. What are the two types of nerve agents? A. They are nonpersistent (leaves the area quickly), andpersistent (stays for hours, days, and weeks at time,normally a liqu1d or solid). 48. Q. What are the symptoms of blood agents?A. Eye and nose irritation, skin may turn pink, nausea,headache and d .i z z i ness , s 1ow or rap i d b reat h i n g , rap i d heart beat. In extreme cases there may be convulsions. 50. Q. What does a choking agent do? A. It causes your lungs to fill with body fluid and drcwnyou, just like getting too much water from the ocean inyour lungs. 92 51. Q. When is the most likely time for a biological attack? A. The best time is in the evening and early morning hours, also cloudy or foggy days, because direct sunlight during the day will kill most of the germs 52. Q. What is the purpose of Chemical and Biological operations and Nuclear warfare? A. The primary purpose of CBN warfare is to produce casualties in man and animals and to deny or hinder the use of space, facilities or material. 53. Q. What are the three forms that chemical agents can take? A. They are vapor (gas), as finely divided liquid or solid particles (aerosols), or liquid droplets. 54. Q. What are biological agents? A. They are the same disease-producing microorganisms (germs) naturally present around us every day. 55. Q. How do chemical and biological agents enter your body? A. Through the eyes, nose, mouth, and skin. 56. Q. What is the single most important item to protect you against CBN operations? A. Your protective, mask. 57. Q. What is the nomenclature of your protective mask? A. M17A1. 58. Q. What is the difference between the M17 and the M17A1 mask? A. The difference is that you can drink water with the M17A1 mask. 59. Q. What does your protective mask do? A. It protects your face, eyes, and respiratory tract from concentrations of chemical and biological agents. Explain how to test for a proper seal of your protective 60. Q. mask. A. Place the palms of your hands over the two inlet valve caps in the cheek pouches to shut off air, and breathe in lightly. The facepiece will collapse against your face if there are no leaks. If the facepiece does not collapse, you have an air leak. 61 . Q. If you show symptoms of nerve agent poisoning what should you do in the way of self-aid? A. Administer one set of nerve agent antidote auto injectors. 93 62. Q. How is a nerve agent antidote injector used? A. 1) With one hand, hold the set of injectors by theplastic clip ~ith the big injector on top.2) With the other hand, check the injection site to avoidbuttons and objects in pockets.3) Grasp the small injector and pull it out of the clipwith a smooth motion.4) Form a fist around the injector without covering or holding the needle end. 5) Place the needle (green) end of the injector against the outer thigh muscle. NOTE: Very thin soldiers should give the injector against the outer part of the buttocks. 6) Push the injector into the muse 1 e with firm, even pressure until it functions. 7) Hold the injector in place for at least 10 seconds. 8) Place the used injector between two fingers of the hand holding the clip without puncturing protective clothing or injuring self. 9) Pull out the large injector and form a fist around it as before. . 10)Place the needle (black) end: of the injector against the injection site, and ~ush it into the muscle with firm even pressure un~il it f~nction~. 11)Hold the injebtor in place fbr at least 10 seconds. 12) Drop the c 1 i p~ without; the used injectors. 63. Q. ' How long should you wait before administering more nerve agent antidote? A. If more than ·10 to 15 minutes have passed and thesymptoms remai;n, give second injection. If symptomsremain another' 10 to 15 minutes,: give 3rd injection. If symptoms persi,st!, do not give any more anti dote. Getmedical help. 64. Q. If you are suffering from blood agent symptoms, whatshould you do?• A. Immediately cr1ush two amyl nitrite ampules, and placethem inside the facepiece .of the. mask, next to the eyes. 65. Q. How often should you replace the amyl nitrite ampules inyour mask? A. Replace them every four to five minutes until normalbreathing returns, or total of eight ampules have beenused. 66. Q. What should you use to remove blister agents from your skin? A. The M258 Decon Kit. 94 67. Q. Within how many seconds must you be able to mask and get an air-tight seal with a mask without hood? A. Within nine (9) seconds. 68. Q. Within how many seconds must you be able to mask and get an air-tight seal with a mask with hood? A. Within fifteen (15) seconds. 69. Q. How many minutes must you boil water if you suspect that it has been contaminated with biological agents? A. About fifteen (15) minutes 70. Q. What are some of the ways you can kill germs? A. Sunning, purification tablets, boiling, scrubbing, and cooking. Q. Give the ways that chemical agents can be disseminated 71 . in an area of operations? A. By artillery fire, mortar fire, missiles, aircraft spray, bombs, grenades. 72. Q. What are chemical agents which may be employed to kill you? A. Nerve, blister, blood, and choking agents. 73. Q. What are the types of blister agents? A. Mustard, arsenical, and phosgene oxime. 74. Q. What should you use to assist you in determining whether an agent is blister or nerve?f A. Use the M8 detector paper. 75. Q. What color will M8 detector paper turn if it comes in contact with a persistent nerve agent? A. It will turn dark green or black. 76. Q. What color will M8 detector paper turn if it comes in contact with a blister agent? A. It will turn red. 77. Q. What color will M8 detector paper turn if it comes in contact with a nonpersistent nerve agent? A. It will turn yellow. 78. Q. Under what circumstances would you mask without orders? A. When smoke from an unknown source is present, a suspicious odor, liquid or solid is present, you are entering an area suspected of being contaminated, or your position is hit by smoke or mists from aerial spray, bomblets, artillery, or mortar fire. 95 79. Q. Who makes the decision to unmas~~ af":er an enemy CBNattack? A. The decision to unmask is always made by the person incommand. OPERATING MILITARY VEHICLES Reference: FM 21-305 FM 55-30 FM 55-31 DA Labe 1 76 1 • Q. What maintenance responsibilities must the driver of amilitary vehicle perform? A. Operator maintenance services as prescribed by the appropriate -10 (Operator's Manual) (FM 55-30, para 2-8& FM 55-31, para 17-21(1)) 2. Q. Who is responsible for an unsecured spare tire that isstolen? A. The driver.(FM 21-305, para 1-4) 3. Q. Prior to backi't;lg a military vehicle of a 2 1/2 ton ratingor larger, what should the driver do? A. Have one person get out and act as "ground guide." ( FM21-305, para 7-6a) 4. Q. When fire trucks, po1ice cars or other emergency veh i c 1 es ~orne in the way of a military vehicle, what should bedone? A. Vehicle shpuld, be stopped at the side of the road to letthe erne rgency ',veh i c 1es pass s i nee they have the rightof-way. (FM 2'1-305, para 14-12a) 5. Q. What is the first item on the "Good Driver List" postedin every military vehicle? A. "A good driver' does not have accidents>" (DA Label 76) 6. Q. What is the maximum speed of all military vehicles? A. The speed indicated on the vehicle instruction plate. (FM 21-305,, Pc:thi 3-3c) 7 • Q. What must be done when leaving a vehicle unattended A. Turn off the engine, set the hand brake and put thevehicle in "reverse" gear or in the "park" position ifveh i c 1 e is aut'omat i c, remove key and 1ock the veh i c 1 e.(FM 21-305, pa~a 7-8a(7)) 8. Q. In order to prove you are authorized to take a Governmentvehicle off post, what must you have in your possession? A. Your SF Form 46 and the log book. 96 9. Q. What is Standard Form 91? A. Operator's Report of Motor Vehicle Accident. (FM 21-305, para 19-6) 10. Q. What is Standard Form 46? A. US Government Motor Vehicle Operator's Identification Card. (FM 21-305, para 1-4a) ORGANIZATION OF THE ARMY Reference: AR 10-6 1. Q. The branches of the Army are classified into two areas. A. The basic branches and the special branches. (Ch 1, para 1-4a) 2 . Q. Name as many of the 16 basic branches as you can. (Ch 1, para 1-4a( 1). A. Infantry Adjutant General's Corps Finance Corps Quartermaster Corps Field Artillery ArmorSignal Corps Chemical CorpsTransportation Corps Military Intelligence Corps of Engineers Air Defense Arty Ordnance Corps Military Police Aviation Special Forces 3. Q. Name as many of the 8 special branches as you can. A. Medical Corps Army Nurse Corps Dental Corps Veterinary CorpsMedical Service Corps Army Medical Specialists Corps Chaplains Judge Advocate General's Corps (Ch 1, para 1-4a( 1) 4. Q. How are the branches of the Army categorized? A. As arms and services based on the normal functions and roles performed by the officers assigned to them. Certain branches are both an arm and a service. (Ch 1, para 1-4b) 5 . Q. What is the primary concern of officers of the arms branches? A. Combat and combat service support. (Ch 1, para 1-4b(1) 6. Q. What is the primary concern of officers of the service branches? A. Combat service support and/or administrative support to the Army. (Ch 1, para 1-4b(2)) 97 7. Q. What is the primary function of Adjutant Generals CorpsOfficers? A. To provide to commanders at all levels the necessarystaff support concerning personne1 and administrative matters. (para2-2) 8. Q. What is the primary function of Air Defense Artillery Defense Artillery Officers? A. To organize, train, and lead units and personnelemploying air defense artillery. (para 2-4) 9 . Q. What is the primary function of Armor officers? A. To organize, train, and lead units and personnel inmounted land or airmobile combat. (para 2-6) 10. Q. What is the primary function of Chemical Corps officers? A. To support a 11 e 1ements of the Army and the DOD, asrequired in NBC defense, smoke and flame operations, and the employment of chemical agents, to include riotcontrol, herbicide and toxic agents, when authorized for use. (para 2-8) 11 . Q. For what are Engineer officers responsible for? A. Training and leading troops in combat and construction engineering operations essential to the Army in thefield. Providing engineering support in execution ofthe Army's military construction op~ration andmaintenance of facilities and civil works programs; andleading Engineer troops in combat operations as Infantry. (para 2-10) 12. Q. What is the primary function of Finance Corps officers? A. To provide all types of pay service to the military and civilian members of the Army; to provide militaryaccounting for appropriated funds; and to perform asspecialists in developing, implementing, and analyzingfinancial procedures and related information systems. (para 2-14) 13. Q. I What is the primary function of Field Artillery officers? A. To organize, train, and lead units and personnelemploying field artillery. (para 2-12) 14. Q. What is the primary function of Infantry officers? A. Leading soldiers in land combat. (para 2-16) 15. Q. What is the primary function of Military Intelligence officers? A. The collection, analysis, production and dissemination of intelligence. (para 2-18) 98 16. Q. What are the functions and duties of the Military Police? A. Military police personnel and units perform primarily combat support and combat service support functions. (para 2-20) 17. Q. What is the primary function of Ordnance Corps officers? A. The provision of ammunition service; mechan i ca1, armament, and fire control and missile system maintenance and maintenance management service; and the integrated management of firepower and ground mobility material. (para 2-22) 18. Q. What is the primary function of officers in the Quartermaster Corps? A. To procure, supply, and manage Army material, and to provide logistical service support to the Army at all echelons as required to accomplish its assigned mission. (para 2-24) What is the primary function of Signal Corps officers? 19. Q. A. To provide combat support communications essential tc the mission of the Army in the field and other communications and electronics support required for all other US Army operations, tasks, and objectives. (para 2-26) 20. Q. What is the primary function of Transportation Corps officers? A. The movement of personnel and material as required to accomplish the assigned mission of the Army. 21. Q. To what duties are officers in the Army Medical Specialist Corps appointed? A. Hospital dietitian, physical therapist, or occupational therapist and they maintain that professional identity throughout their military careers. (para 2-30) · 22. Q. What is the primary function of the Army Nurse Corps? A. To provide the nursing care and service essential to the accomplishment of the miss·ion of the Army Medical Department. 23. Q. What is the primary function of Medical Corps officers? A. Preserve the fighting strength through the prevention, diagnosis, and treatment of physical and mental disease and trauma. (para 2-36) 24. Q. What is the primary duty of the Dental Corps officer? A. To provide the commander at each 1eve1 the necessary denta1 support to rna i ntain the denta 1 hea1th of the command. (para 2-34) 99 25. Q. What is the primary function of the Army Med1cal Service Corps? A. To assist other Army Medical Department Corps in providing health care for the US Army. (para 2-38) 26. Q. What are the primary functions of the Veterinary Corps? A. To protect the health of the troops by food inspection activities, to protect the financial interests ·:Jf the Government by inspections to insure compllance with specifications of military subsistence contracts; and to provide veterinary medical care to public animals including mi 1 itary dogs and :laboratory animals. 27. What is the primary function of Army Chaplains? A. To provide spiritual, religious, and moral leadership to the Army community. 28. Q. What is the primary function of the Judge Ad,'ccate General's Corps? To provide total legal service to the Department of the Army and its members. (para 2-44) 29. Q. What does the acronym MACOM stand for? A. Major Army Command. 30. Q. Which branch of the Army has primary responsibility fer operation and maintenance of data precessing systems(computers)? A. The Adjutant General Corps. 31. Q. Except during a declared "State of National Emergency" who commands the Army National Guard units? A. Individual State Governors. 32. Q. Where is the Eighth US ,Army located? A. Korea. 33. Q. Where is the Seventh US Army located? A. Germany. 34. Q. What is TRADOC? A. Training and Doctrine Command. 35. Q. What is the lowest level of command that has a G1 thrcughG5 staff Group? A. Division. 36. Q. What is the next echelon of command above a Srigade? A. Division. 37. Q. At Batta1ion or Brigade Leve 1 , what staff e 1ement has 100 direct supervision over the HREO, Reenlistment, and PIO officers? A. S-1. 38. Q. Regard 1ess of the command mission, command interests usually can be divided into 5 broad fields such as S4 Logistics. Can you name the other 4? A. S-1 Personnel and Administration S-2 Security S-3 Operations S-4 Logistics S-5 Civil Affairs 39. Q. What is the rank of the Chief of Staff of the Army? A. Four star general. 40. Q. What is the Department of the Army responsible for? A. The Department of the Army is responsible for the preparation of land forces necessary for the effective prosecution of war except as otherwise assigned and, in accordance with integrated mobilization plans, for the expansion of the peacetime components of the Army to meet the needs of war. ( AR 10-1 , pg 7) 41. Q. What is the mission of the US Army Audit Agency? A. The mission of the USAAA is to provide an independent and objective internal audit service to the DA through an appropriate mix of financial and compliance, economy and efficiency, and program results audits. (AR 10-2, para 3) 42. Q. There are more than 10 Major Army Commands. Name at least 5 . A. US Army Material Development and Readiness Command (DARCOM)US Army Communications Command (USACC)Military Traffic Management Command (MTMC) US Army Criminal Investigation Command (USACIDC) US Army Military District of Washington (MSW) VS Army Training and Doctrine Command (TRADOC) US Army Forces Command (FORSCOM)US Army Health Services Command (HSC) US Army Intelligence and Security Command (INSCOM) US Army Corps of Engineers (USACE) 101 PHONETIC LETTERS AND NUMBERS ALFA JULIET SIERRA BRAVO KILO TANGO CHARLIE LIMA UNIFORM DELTA MIKE WHISKEY ECHO NOVEMBER X-RAY FOXTROT OSCAR YANKEE GOLF PAPA ZULU HOTEL QUEBEC INDIA ROMEO 1 -WUN 5 -FIFE 8 -AIT2 -TOO 6 -SIX 9 -NIN-ER3 -TREE 7 -SEV-EN 0 -ZE-RO 4 -FOW-ER PHYSICAL TRAINING 1 • Q. What are the three stages of physical conditioning? A. ( 1) Toughening stage (male), and beginning stage (female) (2) Slow improvement stage (3) Sustaining stage 2 . Q. What are the components of physical fitness? A. (1) Strength (2) Endurance (both muscular and circulo-respiratory) (3) Agility (4) Coordination 3. Q. How long is the toughening (beginning) stage? A. Approximately:two (2) weeks. 4. Q. How long is the slow improvement stage? A. Approximately 6 to 10 weeks.· 5 . Q. What are the principles of physical conditioning? A. (1) Progression (2) Overload (3) Balance (4) Variety (5) Regularity 6 . Q. What is the objective of .Physical Readiness Training? A. To develop individuals who are physically capable andready to perform their duty assignments or missions during training and in combat. 102 7. Q. When you are administered a physical fitness test, at a minimum, how many points must you attain in each event? A. At least 60 points. 8. Q. What is the Army Regu 1ation which governs the Army's Physical Fitness Program? A. AR 600-9 9. Q. What is the best way to maintain circulo-respiratory endurance? A. By running. 10. Q. What are the cadences at which physical fitness training is conducted? A. Slow -50 counts per minute Moderate -80 counts per minute Fast -100 counts per minute 11 . Q. What is a conditioning drill (exercise series for female)? A. It is a set of calisthenic type exercise organized and numbered in a set pattern. 12. Q. How many exercises are contained in each conditioning drill (exercise series for female)? A. Seven. 13. Q. How long does it take to complete one conditioning drill (exercise series for female)? A. Approximately 15 minutes. 14. Q. What is the form used to record the scores of male and female personnel? A. DA Form 705 (Army Physical Fitness Evaluation Scorecard for Men and Women). 15. Q. What are the commands to get a unit into an extended rectangular formation? A. (1) Extend to the left, march (2) Arms downward, move (3) Left, face (4) Extend to the left, march (5) Arms downward (6) Right, face (7) From front to rear, count off (8) Even numbers to the left, uncover 16. Q. What is the command to return the extended rectangular formation to the original formation? A. Assemble to the right, march 103 17. Q. Who may participate in the "Run For Your Life Program?" A. The program is available to al 1 mi 1itary personnel, their dependents, and members of the civilian work force, on a voluntary basis. 18. Q. What is the purpose of obstacle courses? A. To present a challenge by the obstacles which assists in developing and testing basic physical skills. 1 9 . Q. What are the types of obstacle courses in use today? A. They are the conditioning and confidence obstacle courses. 20. Q. What is the maximum age of personnel who may be tested under the Advanced Physical Fitness Test, Staff and Specialist Physical Fitness Test, and Basic Phys~cal Fitness Test? A. The maximum is 39 years. 21. Q. May personnel 40 years of age and older be tested? A. Yes. After a complete physical screening has been comp 1 eted by the doctor .and the personne1 have been approved for testing. PSYCHOLOGICAL OPERATIONS Reference: FM 33-1 and 33-5 1 . Q. What is the definition of psythological operations? A. It includes psychological warfare and, in addition, encompasses po1iti ca.l , mi.. l i tary, econom 1 c, and ideological actions planned and conducted to create in neutral or friendly foreign groups the emotions, attitudes, or behavior to support the achievement of national objectives. 2. Q. What is propaganda? A. It is any information, ideas, doctrines, or special appeals in support of natio~al objectives, designed to influence the opinions, emotions, attitudes, or behavior of any specifi~d group ~n order to benefit the sponsor. 3. The following are propaganda techniques: (1) GLITTERING GENERALITIES: Glittering or favorable generalities are words or phrases so closely associated with 104 4. 5. 6. 7. commonly accepted ideas or beliefs that they carry conviction in themselves, without benefit of reason or supporting information. (2) TESTIMONIAL: This is a device which is used in an attempt to place the official sanction of a respected authority on a propaganda message. (3) SIMPLIFICATION: It is a device in which the subject matter of propaganda is reduced to clear, concise statements that are credible to the target audience. (4) PLAIN FOLKS: The "plain folks" or "common man" device is designed to win the confidence of an audience by talking or writing in the manner or style used by that audience. (5) CARD STACKING: Or "selective omission is a device describing the selection and presentation of those facts that most effective1y strengthen and authenticate a parti cu1ar point of view. (6) BANDWAGON: Or "inevitable victory." This is a device reinforcing people's natural desire to be on the winning side. (7) INSINUATION: This is used to create or stir up suspicions of the target audience against certain ideas, groups, or individuals in order to divide the enemy. CALLING: Or "moral 1abe1s" is the device by which the propagandist seeks to arouse prejudice in his target audience for, or against, ideas, persons, or institutions by labeling the object of his assault as something the audience hates or fears. Q. What is propaganda development? A. It is the process of researching, designing, testing, processing. disseminating, and evaluating propaganda. Q. Name some of the media for disseminating propaganda? A. Printed material, radio. loudspeaker, motion picture, television, and face to face. Q. What is the most effective media for disseminating propaganda? A. By aerial delivery means. Q. The method used to analyze propaganda is known as the SCAME formula. What do the individual letters mean? A. (1) S Source (2) C Content (3) A Audience (4) M -Media (5) E Effects 105 8. The following are abbreviations for different levels and functions of psychological operations teams: AA -Company AB- Battalion AC -Group BA -Supply and maintenance HA- Platoon headquarters (audio and visual) HB -Loudspeaker HC -Audiovisual 9. Q. What is counterpropaganda? A. It is propaganda directed at the enemy or other foreign groups, designed to counteract or capitalize on enemy or other foreign propaganda campaigns. 10. Q. Name some of propaganda? the techniques used to counter enemy A. ( 1 ) Foresta1 1 i ng (2) Direct refutation (3) Indirect refutation (4) Diversionary ( 5) S i 1 ence (6) Immunization (7) Restricting measures (8) Minimizing the subject (9) Imitative deceptions 11 . Q. What does the abbreviation IDAD mean? A. Internal Defense and Development. 1 2 . Q. A. What is black propaganda? It purports to emanate from a source other than the true one. 13. Q. What is gray propaganda? A. This type of propaganda does not specifically identify any source of origin. 14. Q. What are STRATEGIC psychological operations? A. These are operations designed to further broad or long term objectives. 1 6 . Q. What are TACTICAL psychological operations? A. These are operations designed to exploit vulnerabilities in foreign military forces and populations in support of tactical military operations. 17. Q. What is white propaganda? A. Propaganda which is overtly disseminated and acknowledged by its true source. ' 106 UNCONVENTIONAL WARFARE TERMS Reference: FM 33-1 and FM 33-5 1. AUXILIARY UNS: A c i vi 1ian organization which supports the resistance movement through clandestine operations by providing the guerrilla force with food, clothing, shelter, arms, ammunition, early warning, intelligence, replacements, funds, medical supplies, and moral support 2. COLD WAR: A state of international tension wherein political, economical, technological, sociological, psychological, paramilitary, and military measures short of overt armed conflict involving regular military forces are employed to achieve national objectives. 3. COUNTERINSURGENCY OPERATIONS: Operations against insurgent forces. 4. GUERRILLA WARFARE: Military and paramilitary operations conducted in enemy-held or hostile territory by irregular predominantly indigenous forces. 5. INFILTRATION: Movements of individuals or vehicles, singularly or in small groups at extended and irregular intervals. 6. INSURGENCY: A condition resulting from a revolt or insurrection against a constituted government which falls short of civil war. 7. IRREGULAR FORCES: I rregu 1ar· forces refer in a broad sense to all types of insurgents to include partisans, subversionists, terrorists, revolutionaries, and guerrillas. 8. MILITARY INTELLIGENCE: Knowledge of a possible or actual enemy or area of operation. 9. PARAMILITARY FORCES: Forces or groups which are distinct from the regular armed forces of any country, but resembling them in organization, equipment training, or mission. 10. SPECIAL WARFARE: Special warfare is a term used by the US Army to embrace all the military and paramilitary measures and activities related to unconventional warfare, counterinsurgency, and psychological warfare. 11. SUBVERSION: Action designed to undermine the military, economic, psychological, moral or political strength of a regime. 12. UNCONVENTIONAL WARFARE: The interrelated fields of guerrilla warfare, evasion and escape, and resistance. Such operations are conducted in enemy-held or controlled territory and are planned 107 and executed to take advantage of or to stimulate resistance and movements or insurgency against hostile governments or forces. In peacetime, the United States conducts training to deve 1op its capability for such wartime operations. RECRUITING AND RETENTION Every officer and NCO play an important role in the strength management of the unit. Each battalion will provide its soldiers with the respective information in force in each state in order to keep them informed of benefits and opportunities. "To see the right and not to do it is cowardice." Confucius, 551-478 BC, Analects. GOOD NCOs DO A LOT OF REENLISTING SALUTING AND COURTESIES Courtesy is the expression of consideration for others. In military life, where men must live and work together in the closest association, courtesy means more than merely obeying the forms of polite usage. It is a deep-rooted spirit of friendliness and mutua1 respect that should be ref1ected in a 11 mi 1 i tary men do, both on and off duty. Courtesy is as much a matter of attitude as it is of conforming to regulations and custom. Slovenly, sullen or grudging gestures are move discourteous than none at all. The salute is the most important of all military courtesies, and by the way a soldier salutes one can tell what kind of soldier he is. If he salutes smartly and willingly, it shows that he has pride in himself and in the Army. A sloppy salute suggests ignorance or neglect of his duties, lack of confidence in his abilit; as 3. soldier, or a defiant, uncooperative spirit. The salute is a gesture of respect and confidence exchanged ty fighting men. It is a privilege possessed only by a soldier in good standing mi 1 i tary prisoners may not salute because they have d i shone red their profession. All military personnel in uniform in the continental United States must salute when they meet and recognize persons entitled to a salute. Saluting in the United States possessions or 108 territories, in occupied areas, and in foreign countries is at the discretion of the major overseas commander or Army attache concerned. Persons entitled to the salute include: 1. Commissioned officers, both male and female, of the Army, Navy Air Force, Marine Corps, and Coast Guard 2. Warrant officers · 3. Commissioned officers of friendly nations The salute is rendered at a distance at which recognition is easy, usually not more than 30 paces, and not before the approaching person is closer than 6 paces, thus giving him time to never recognize and return the salute. The salute is rendered in a casual or careless manner, nor with a pipe, cigar, or cigarette held in the mouth or right hand. It is rendered only at a halt or a walk. If running, a soldier comes to a walk before saluting. Salutes are exchanged whether individuals are covered or uncovered. The Department of the Army encourages officers and enlisted men to accompany the hand salute with an appropriate greeting such as "Good Morning, sir." Since the salute is a form of greeting, there is an obligation on the part of the officer to initiate or return the oral greeting. Civilians may be saluted by persons in uniform when appropriate, but the uniform hat or cap is never raised as a form of greeting. The salute is given only once if the senior remains in the immediate vicinity and no conversation takes place. If there is a conversation, the junior again salutes the senior on departing, or when the senior leaves. No salute is given when: 1 . A pr i soner . 2. At work. Detai 1 s at work do not sa1ute. The officer or NCO in charge, if not actively engaged at the time, renders the sa1ute for the entire party. 3. Indoors, except when reporting to a senior, or when on duty as a sentinel or guard. 4. <;:arrying articles with both hands or being otherwise so occupied as to make saluting impracticable. 5. It is obviously inappropriate to give a salute. 6. In ranks: if you are not at attention, come to attention when addressed by an officer. 7. Actively engaged in games such as baseball, tennis or golf. 8. In churches, theaters, or other places of public assemblage or in a public conveyance. 9. In a squad room, barracks, or tent. 109 10. On the march, in campaign, or under simulated campaign-conditions. In case of doubt, salute. The salute is a gesture of respectand courtesy, not a mechanical act performed solely to comply with a regulation. The term "outdoors" includes such buildings as dri 11 halls, riding halls, gymnasiums, and other roofed enclosures used for drill or exercise. Theater marquees, covered walks, and other shelters open of the sides to the weather are also considered "outdoors." "Indoors" includes offices, hallways, kitchens, orderly rooms, washrooms, squad rooms, etc. "Under arms" means carrying a weapon, or having it attached to the person by sling, holster, or other means. In the absence of weapons, it refers to equipment pertaining directly to the weapon, such as a cartridgebelt, pistol holster, or automatic belt. The salute is always r~ndered by a junior when he reports to a senior. He also salutes at the end of the interview or when he leaves. When reporting to an officer in his office, a soldier removes his headdress, knocks, and enters when told to do so. Uponentering, he halts about two paces from the officer, salutes, and says: "Sir, ....... reports to ..... ," (Ma'am" is the counterpartof "Sir" for female officers). The salute is held until this formal report has been· f:;ompleted, when the senior returns the salute. When his business has been completed, the soldier salutes, executes about face when his salute has been returned, and leaves. An enlisted man who wishes to speak to his company commander usually first receives the First sergeant's permission. When reporting, he then says: "Sir, Private .... has the First sergeant'spermission to speak to the company commander." When the soldier is under arms, the headdress is not removed. If carrying a rifle, he enters with the rifle at the trail, halts,and renders the rifle salute at order arms. Otherwise, the hand salute is given. When reporting outdoors, the headdress is not removed, and a soldier armed with the rifle may, while approaching the officer, carry it either at the' trai 1 or at right shoulder arms. He executes the rifle salute at either order or right shoulder arms. A soldier reporting 'for pay answers "Here" when his name is called, salutes the officer making payment, signs the payroll moneylist, counts his money ~s it is placed before him, and leaves without again sa1uti ng the officer. · The officer does not return the salute. Drivers of motor vehicles salute only when the vehicle is at a halt and the engine is not running. Exchange of salutes is not required between persons in vehicles, or persons mounted in movingvehicles and dismounted persons, except when a vehicle is clearly 11 0 marked to indicate that a general is riding in it, or when the salute is required as part of a ceremony. If a detail is riding in a vehicle, the person in charge salutes for the entire .detail. Salutes are not given in public conveyances, such as buses, trains, or trolleys. Individuals in formation do not salute or return salutes except at the command Present Arms. The person in charge salutes and acknowledges salutes for the entire formation. Commanders of organizations which are not part of a 1arge r formation sa1ute officers of higher grades by bringing the unit to attention before saluting. When in the field under campaign or simulated campaign conditions, however, the organization is not brought to attention. A soldier in formation at ease or at rest comes to attention when addressed by an officer. On the approach of an officer superior in rank, a group not in formation is called to attention by the first person noticing him. All come smartly to attention and salute, unless they are playing a game or are members of a detail at wor~~. The person in charge of a work detai 1 , if not working himself, salutes or acknowledges salutes for the entire detail. A unit resting along side a road does not come to attention when an officer approaches. They do come to attention, however, if he addresses an individual or group, and remain at attention (unless otherwise ordered) until the conversation ends, at which time they salute. In garrison, sentinels posted with a rifle halt and face the music, person or colors to be saluted, and then present arms. During the hours for challenging, the first salute is rendered as soon as the officer has been du 1 y recognized and advanced. A sentinel armed with a pistol or carbine gives the hand salute, except during cha1 1 eng i ng hours. When cha11eng i ng, he does not sa1ute but executes raise pi sto1 or port arms, retaining that position until the challenged party has left. A sentinel talking to an officer does not interrupt the conversation to salute another officer, but if the officer with whom he is talking salutes a senior, the sentinel also salutes. A prisoner guard armed with a r if1 e executes the r if1e sa1ute. Whether outdoors or indoors a sentinel on post or a guard on duty salutes, unless salutes would interfere with the proper pe~formance of his duty. OTHER COURTESIES When an officer enters a room or tent, persons junior to him uncover, if unarmed, and stand at attention until he directs otherwise or leaves the room. When more than one person is present, the first to see him commands Attention. If the room or tent is used as an office, workshop or recreation room, those at work or play do not come to attention unless the officer talks to them. A junior, when spoken to by a senior, stands at attention, 11 1 except when carrying on routine business between Hid i vi dua1s at work. When an officer enters an enlisted man's mess, the group 1s called to at ease by the first person noticing h1m. Tne first sergeant, mess steward, or other person in charge reports to the officer. Men seated at meals remain seated at ease and continue eating unless the officer directs otherwise. A person spoken ~o directly stops eating and sits at attention until the conversation is ended. When accompanying a senior, a junior waH~s or rides en il~s left, except during an inspection of troocs. Entering an automobile or small boat, the junior gees first; others follow in inverse order of ran~ -the senior enters last. In leaving, the senior goes out first and the others follow in order of rank. GENERAL QUESTIONS ABOUT SALUTING ..... 1 • When is it required to render the hand ~.a lute tc an "'· individual? A. A person is required to sa1ute wf1en they meet and recognize persons entitled to the salute, except salutes are not required to be rendered by or to US personnel in vehicles. 2. o. When is it required to salute indoors? A. When reporting to a superior officer. 3. Q. Is it required to salute while in civilian clothing? A. Salutes are not required to be rendered or returned if either the senior or subordinate or both are in civilian clothing. 4. 0. What is considered courtesies? the most important of all mi 1 itar:. A. The hand salute. 5 . Q. Upon the death of a President, former President, or a President elect, how long is the flag flown at r;alfstaff? A. 30 days from the date of death. 6 • Q. What is meant by military courtesy? A. M i 1 i tary courtesy is the respect and cons ide ration shc\·in to other pers6nnel of the Ar~ed Forces. 7 • 0. What shou 1d you, as a mi 1i tary person do, when the national anthem of a foreign country is played? A. Come to attention and salute. 11 2 8. Q. When saluting a person, do you salute the uniform or the A. person? You salute the uniform. 9 . Q. A. What position is assumed when The position of parade rest. Retreat is sounded? 10. Q. A. What action is taken when the flag is lowered? Military personnel in uniform come to attention and salute. 11 . Q. If you are in a room and an officer enters the room, what a. do you do? If alone, come to attention and render the greeting of the day. If other personnel are in the room with you, call, ATTENTION, and render the greeting of the day. SECURITY Reference: AR 380-5 PHYSICAL SECURITY AR 380-5 1 • Q. Who is responsible for the safeguarding of classified information? A. It is the responsibility of each individual who possesses or has knowledge of such information, regardless of how it was obtained. 2. Q. What should I do if I came into a room with no one in it and the classified documents safe was left open? A. Immediately contact one of the names listed on the form SF 7 00 which is attached on the outside of the safe. Don't touch anything and wait until a responsible party arrives. 3. Q. What should I do if I suspect an unauthorized person has classified documents in his possession or is passing on classified information to people with no clearance or a need to know? A. I should immediately contact the unit Security Manager or the Commander. 4. Q. How do I know if I am allowed to see a classified document? A. You need to have a current clearance of the level of the document and also a need to know'the information. 5 . Q, How do I know if another person has the right to see a do"cument? 1 1 3 A. That right does not depend on rank or anything e 1se except the current cl~arance to the level of the information plus a need to know, regardless of rank. 6 . Q, A. Can I copy off classified material if I am authorized? At present, none of our copy machines are authorized to copy off classified material. Any machine will be so designated. PHYSICAL SECURITY AR 190-11 , NGR 190-11 , UTNG 190-11 7. Q. Whose responsibility is it to safeguard arms, and explosives? ammunition, A. It is your responsibility and each individual soldier's to safeguard arms, ammunition, and explosives. 8. Q, How do I get a key to use during the drill? A. Keys are signed out by the key custodian only. If you are signed out for one, safeguard it well. 9 . Q. How do I check out a weapon? A. You must have an equipment receipt card (DA Form 3749) to check a weapon out and then it must be for official use by the military. 10. Q. What is my responsibility as a member of my unit A. concerning phys1cal security? You need to read and understand the Physi ca1 Security Standard Operating Procedure (SOP) of your unit and then follow it. 11 . Q. What if I am the last person in a building and must leave? can I just leave? A. Only when you have first secured the building properly. If you can't sedure the:building, either wait for another person to comel who can .secure the building, or call someone in authority in the situation, and ~hen foll6w his unit and te11 instructions. him the Under no circumstances s~oul.d you leave a building unsecured, even to go to eat! ! 12. Q. What do I do when !I receive a bomb threat? A. Your unit has !a procedure for this in the Physical Security SOP. Read it and follow it. 13. Q. What do I do in case of fire? A. Know your unit's fire policy and where to meet after exiting the building. 114 ADP (computer) SECURITY AR 380-380 and UTNG 380-380 14. Q. A. Can I use my own personal computer at the Guard? It is STRONGLY recommended that your personal computer not be used. Authorization must be given by the system Security Manager. 15. Q. A. Can I type on a computer at Guard? Only if you are on the list of authorized terminal users posted for each computer. There is a Termi na1 Area Security Officer appointed for each computer. 16. Q. A. Should I have a clearance to be in this unit? If you are a linguist, the answer is YES. All officers, E-8' s and E-9' s and CI personne1 need a top secret clearance. Other linguists need a secret. The support personnel, such as clerks, motor pool, cooks, etc., generally don't need any clearance. Your chain of command will inform you of any exception. 17. Q. A. Do I really need to protect myself when I go on missions outside of the U.S. (OCONUS)? Yes. Find out about the area you are going to. Travel only in civilian clothes, don't share anything with those not of your group on the plane about why you are going overseas. Find out as much as you can about hm<~ to protect yourself from terrorist acts, and also having problems with new situations overseas. 18. Q. If I don't have the clearance I'm supposed to have, what do I do? A. Go through your chain of command to the trainer and fill out the necessary papers immediately to receive your clearance. Follow it through to make sure that you get it back. SKILL QUALIFICATION TEST (SQT) Reference: AR 600-200 DA PAM 350-37 DA PAM 600-8 1 • Q. A. What is the Skill Qualification Test? A diagnostic training and evaluation program designed to improve individual soldier and unit readiness. (DA PAM 350-37.para 1-4a) 2. Q. A. What is the soldier's responsibility in the SOT program? For maintaining his proficiency in Soldier's Manual tasks and preparing himself for his SQT. (DA PAM 350-37, para 1-6h) 1 1 5 3. Q. How often must a soldier take a SOT? A. Effective 1 October 1980, soldiers will be required test annually. (AR 600-200, 116, Ch 5, para 5-3g) 4. 0. What is the eligibility criteria for taki~g a SOT? A. One year active Federa 1 service as cf the date of testing. E-4 and be 1ow must have held their Pt·~::JS, regardless of time in grade, a minimum of 90 daysimmediately prior to testing. E-5 and above must ~ave held their PMOS and grade a minimum cf 90 days immediately prior to testing. IAR 600-200, Ch 5, para5-7b) r: ..J • Q • What is the score needed on the SQT to be eligible to compete for promotion? A. A raw of 60 or higher is needed to be eligible to competefor promotion without waiver. (AR 600-200. Ch 7 para 715f) 6. 0. What skill level is a soldier in the grade of E-5? A. Skill level 2. (AR 600-200, para 2-26bl 7 . 0. When would a soldier be tested in his/her secondary MOS? A. Secondary MOS testing by SQT is mandatory once i r. a soldier's career and must be accomplished during the second regular test period for the SMOS after the soldier attains sldll level 3 in his/her CPMOS. (AR 60:)-20C:, ::h 5, para 5-8a) 8. Q. May a soldier who is an E-5 tai;e the skill le·:el 3 SCT to prove that he is qualified for promotion to E-6? A. No, soldiers will not be administered an SOT at a level or in an MOS different from that specified for the grade and MOS held by the soldier on the test date. (AR 600200, para 5-3) 9. 0. What is the purpose of Skill Qualification T8stiig? A . SQT i s a d i a gnost i c t r a i n i n g and eva1 u at i o:1 p r o g ram designed to improve i nd i vi dua 1 and unit readiness. ( c:~. PAM 350-37, PARA 1-4) 10 . Q • What i s an I n d i v i d u a l S c 1 d 1 e r ' s Ref:o r t and ~r, hat information does it contain? A. It tells the soldier his/her SOT score, tasks on which he/she scored "NO-GO", and the performance measures in the Soldier's Manual which should be studied. (CA PAM 350-37, para 1-5j) 11. 0. What is a Job Book and what is its purpose? A. A record of individual performance. Its p;.;rpose is tc help first line supervisors to train their soldiers to combat proficiency. It lists a~l Soldier's Manual tasks 11 6 and contains a place to record the soldier's ability to perform those tasks. (QA PAM 350-37, para 1-5k) 12 . Q. A. What is a Soldier's Manual? A field Manual that lists the critical ·tasks for a given skill level in an MOS. (DA PAM 350-37, para 1-5x) 13 . Q. A. To whom should Soldier's Manuals be available? The soldier and his supervisor. (DA PAM 350-37, para 1 4a) 14. Q. A. PFC Jones has 18 months in service. He arrived at his new duty station on 1 April. The SQT in his primary MOS is being given on 20 April. Is he required to test? No. Soldiers are exempt from SQT during the first 60 days after arrival at a new duty station. (DA PAM 600 8) STAFF SECTION MISSIONS As you read the following description of what the different staff sections do at battalion level, keep in mind that staff sections at group and at INSCOM Headquarters are doing much the same type of work. The big difference 1i es in the scope of activities at different levels of command. At company level, there simi 1ar work as the staff are officers and NCOs who must do sections accomplish, but this is in addition to their normal duties. As an example, one of your platoon leaders may also be assigned duties as supply or motor officer. This is one of the reasons that your leader's days can be long ones at times. Support them. Some of you are supported by a PAC, some thru your unit orderly room only, and others from a distant headquarters. Regardless of what your unit operates under, the system is the same for all of us. Never feel that you will miss out on a promotion board or an award because you are located in an isolated area. We look out for your welfare perhaps even a bit more than our soldiers ar9und the flagpole. Here is how the brigade or battalion is set up by staff sections: THE EXECUTIVE OFFICER (XO) Executive officers at company and batta1ion 1 ev,e 1 s are the deputy commanders of the units to which they are assigned. At the brigade level, there is an XO and a Deputy Commander. The XO at battalion and brigade levels is responsible to the commander for the proper functioning of the staff. He directs and 1 1 7 supervises the staff to insure that it properly supports the needs of the commander, and higher, subordinate, and adjacent units. Guidance, direction, and information usually goes from a commander through the XO to the staff. The XO at company level usually is the individual who handles the administrative side of maintenance and supply. The XO is the key i nd i vi dua1 who hand 1es and directs a 11 of those add iti ana1 duties required at unit level. THE PERSONNEL ADMINISTRATION CENTER The Personnel Administration Center (PAC) is here to help youwith your administrative requirements and problems. The PAC handles your military records, promotions, awards, and reenlistments. It helps you with legal matters, finance problems, and 1eaves. It is in charge of in/out processing, assignments,orders, port calls, extensions and curtailments. If your unit is serviced by a PAC, make sure that you are aware of their operating hours and established procedures. Your 1SG can make any inquiries for you on routine matters, and can answer most of your questions. THE S-1 SECTION The Battalion S1 is the primary staff officer who is responsible for the personnel management and administration within the unit. Specific duties that are handled only by the Adjutantinclude: Officer Efficiency Reports (OERs), Awards and Decorations, Legal matters, publications management, Mail management and Courier Services. General Personnel work such as SIDPERs, personnel actions, enlisted personnel management, leaves, meal cards and similar actions are managed by the PAC Supervisor and/or the Personnel Service NCO (PSNCO). THE S-2 SECTION The S-2 Section is responsible for the production of intelligence, counterintelligence. The S-2 Section in this particular unit also has responsibility for security managementwhich dovetails with the counterintelligence responsibility. Production of intelligence consists of maintaining a correct estimate of the situations, recommending essenti a 1 e 1ements of Information (EEI) and other i nte l,l i gence requests ( OIR) , identifying requirements for reconnaissance and surveillance, 118 obtaining intelligence for other intelligence services, conducting intelligence preparation of the battlefield (IPS), and coordinating and consolidating the command's needs for weather and terrain analysis. The Area of Counterintelligence involves planning, coordinating, and supervising efforts to detect, neutralize, and/or manipulate enemy intelligence activities and protection against espionage, subversion, and sabotage. The area of i nte11 i gence training involves supervising this training of the command in coordination with the S-3 and the Commander. THE S-3 SECTION The S-3 Section in an MI unit has many functions which can be generally categorized as Operations, Plans and Training. Operations deal with the real-world, 24 hour a day operation of i nte11 i gence for the Army. To provide supported units with thePlans intelligence information they need to make decision with. is mainly concerned with preparing and maintaining those documents which govern how our units will operate during war and in periods of increased tensions. Plans also prepares numerous briefings for as our own. Training is primarily supported units as wellconcerned with evaluating how well the unit is performing the current peacetime mission as well as our wartime mission. On the unit level, this is called collective training or how well the sections perform as a team. The S-3 is the coordinator of such things as unit tasking, readiness reporting, requests for ranges, ammunition, OPSEC, NBC guidance, and many other unit functions. As an individual soldier, the S-3 functions that most relate to you those that deal with individual training. This includes ITEP, learning centers, requests for schools, both long term and NCOES courses, post-level training as well as evaluating how well we are conducting individual soldier training. THE S-4 SECTION The brigade S4 provides logistics guidance to all units. Battalion S4's do much the same. What all individual soldiers must keep in mind, is that the S4 is not a supply room. They will, however, assist the individual soldier with any and all supply related problems, real or imagined. Their primary function is to see that ~he individual and the units have all the necessary items we need to perform the mission, and to see that it is taken care of properly. The proper administration of supplies and supply accounting, in their simplest form, are a major logistical function at every .level of leadership. The management of materi~l is one of those areas where the S4 insures that we are a 11 doing what we are supposed to do with the supply items we are issued. 119 S4' s make frequent visi'ts to units to insure comp1i ance with regulations, provide guidance to commanders, and assistance to supply personnel. One of the best small references on supply accountability you can find is FM 10-14-1, Sep 1980, THe Commander's Handbook for Property Accountability. It tells you in ~i~ple terms the best way to do it. It also lists other references needed for efficient supply operations. BATTALION MAINTENANCE OFFICER (THE BMO) The Battalion Maintenance Officer (BMO) serves as the overallcoordinator for all maintenance related activities in the battalion. In addition· to providing expertise, inspection and instruction in the areas of Maintenance Management, TAMMS, PLL,Wheeled Vehicles, Generators and Special Purpose Equipment, theBMO provides welding, machine work, and recovery services. Your Battalion or unit Motors Sergeant assists the aMo or unitMotor Officer in the maintenance effort. He concentrates his efforts on training drivers, operators and mechanics to insure theyknow their role in maintenance. One of the best guides for rna i ntenance is the Maintenance Guide For Leaders, DA PAM 750-1. By the way, if you do not have your government operators permit yet, see your Motor Sergeant -Quick. It may help on p~omotion boards! **O'HER SPECIAL STAFF FUNCTIONS** The Communications~~lectronics Officer (CEO) handles all matters pertaining to Signal Communications, phot6 services,telephone installations~ CEOis, frequency allocations, ECCMtraining and similar activities. i The Resources Management Officer (RMO) handles unit operatingbudgets and allocates mobey for unit operations. Supervises thedeve 1opment, eva1uation, i revision, defense and execution of thecommand operating budge. ! 1 The Automation Manag~ment Officer (ADO) handles all automatic data processing equipm.ht such as computers, word-processing equipment. Advises the i commander and .the staff equipment, on programs and plans to in~ure efficiert use of automation systems. The Special Secur1~Y Officer (SSO) handles all liaisonactivities with the Special Security' Group (SSG), ACSI, DA.Handles clearances and access between commands. I' 'I Works closely withthe S2. 120 Liaison Officers (LnO's). Liaison officers are needed in all units to act as the primary point of contact for all matters affecting his or her unit. During tactical and wartime operations, full-time LnO's are needed to insure coordination is continuous. Headquarters Company Commander (Cdr, HHC). In addition to the norma1 duties of a unit commander, the HHC Commander a 1 so functions as an advisor on the use of HHC assets such as motor rna i ntenance and mess funct i ens. In the fie1d, the HHC Cdr a 1 so becomes a Headquarters Commandant. Duties include setting up • bivouac sites and providing support to the Hq. There are many other staff functions that are not covered here, many of them are part-time or additional duty type jobs at lower levels such as NBC Officer. -At higher-level units, these ..functions take on a full-time schedule due to the increased scope. If you need further information on the job or in preparation for SQT or boards, refer to FM 101-5, Staff Organization and Operations. SUBVERSION AND ESPIONAGE Reference: AR 381-12 1 • Q. What is the short tit1e for Subversion and Espionage Directed Against the US Army and Deliberate Security Violations? A. The short title is SAEDA. 2. Q. What is the purpose of SAEDA? A. It provides for the p~ompt recognition, reporting, and disposition of incidents of attempted subversion and espionage directed against the US Army and its personnel, and the deliberate compromise of classified information. 3. Q. What is meant by sabotage? A. The intentional destruction of machinery, damage to the productive process, and waste of materials. In time of war it is the destruction of railroads, bridges, machinery, etc., by enemy agents. 4. Q. What is the definition of subversion? A. It means to undermine or corrupt, as in character or morals. 5 . Q. What is meant by espionage? A. It means to use spies, especially for military purposes. 121 6. Q.. What is the key to an effective security program? A. Personnel -military, civilian, and dependents are the key. 7. Q. Give some examples of unclassified information which an enemy agent could ask for at the beginning of a "friendship?" A. The agent cou 1d ask for innocent things such as names and biographic data on Army members, copies of militarydirectories, rosters, or telephone books. 8. Q. Each individual with knowledge of the facts regarding any actual or suspected SAEDA approach will report this information to who? A. It wi 11 be reported to the nearest US Army mi 1 i tary intelligence office, or to the unit security officer if immediate contact with mi 1itary intelligence is impractical. 9. Q. What action should the supervisor or security officer take once notified of a possible SAEDA approach? A. These personnel wi 11 take no action. Reporting it to the military intelligence unit nearest them is all theywill do. They will take no action which could alert the subversives to the fact that a report has been filed. 10. Q. The following situation~ will be reported without delay.However, any incident you may think warrants reporting will be reported: A. 1) Attempts by individuals with known or suspected espionage, subversive, or foreign intelligencebackgrounds or associations to cultivate friendship or to place personnel under obligation. 2) Attempt~ by unauthoriied individuals to obtain informatidn ,through· pbservation, collection of documents pr personal :contact including unsolicited correspondence. 3) Attempts ; by unauthorized persons to obtain ,' .I information through coercion, bribery, trickery, or elicitation. 4) Inti mi dat;'on of petfsonne 1 trave1 i ng throughcountriss h~ving interests inimical to those of the United ~tates. · 5) Exploitation of personne1 having any tendency toward disaffecti!on1,or having personal difficulties. 6) Threats of exposure of ·past or present misdeeds, whether or r+tot di r:edt 1y re1ated to i nte11 i genceexploitatfon: 7) Any incident of known .pr suspected espionage or subversion resulting, or which may have resulted,in the compromise o~ classified information. 8) Any act committed or 'attempted with the intention 1, I 122 or objective of conveying classified information, regardless of the circumstances. receive a 1 1 • Q. Each person in the United States Army wi 11 block of instruction on SAEDA once each year. When will this instruction be given to you? It will given in the fourth quarter (October, No·;ember, A. or December) of each year. TRAINING Reference: FM 21-6 1 . Q. What is the purpose of training? A. It is to prepare soldiers, teams, and units for job performance. 2. 0. It is but slight exaggeration to state that the performance-oriented approach begins and ends with the training objective. ¥/hat are the three elements of a properly constructed training objective? A. (1) TASK to be performed (2) CONDITIONS of performance (3) TRAINING STANDARD of acceptable performance 3. Q. What should performance-oriented training (POT) increase in a soldier'? A. His knowledge and skill to perform a task. What are some of the advantages of performance-oriented 4. Q. training? A. (1) Training objectives are clear and explicit. (2) Training resources are employed efficiently (3) Training is soldier-oriented rather than instructororiented 5. Q. The following are differences between performanceoriented and conventional training. as its chief Conventiona 1 training re1i e.s on the 1ecture method of instruction. Performance training uses short demonstrations and "learning by doing" as its main means of instruction. Conventiona 1 training p1aces the instructor in the centra1 active role. Performance training makes the soldier active and centers training around him -giving him the time and support he needs to learn. 123 Conventional training selects content in relation to what theinstructor can present or cover in a certain amount of time.Performance training digests content into a set of highpriority skills that are important for soldiers to learn inthe time allotted for training. Conventional training uses "grades" to rate what the soldierhas learned. Performance training sets standards all soldiersmust meet. When so1d i ers do not meet the standards, they practice until they can. 6. The following is an overview of the three step backwardplanning process: STEP 1 -DESCRIBE THE DESIRED RESULTS OF TRAINING: The trainer obtains the commander's guidance which describes precisely what the soldiers must be able to do at the completion of training (the commander's training objective).This guidance should include the standards of performance thesoldiers must meet. If the ·commander's guidance isincomplete, the trainer must develop this information himself. STEP 2 -PREPARE TO CONDUCT TRAINING: The trainer develops those interm~diate training objectiyeswhich his soldiers must perform if they are to accomplish thecommander's training objective. These intermediate objectivesare then organiied in a logica~, ptogressive sequence~Finally, all administrative requi:rements (lesson plans, rehearsals, etc) are completed. STEP 3 -CONDUCT TRAINING TO STANDARDS: The trainer supervises, continuously monitors, and evaluatesthe conduct of training to insure his soldiers' performance meets the training standards established by the commander. 7 . Q. What is an intermediate training objective (ITO)? A. Intermediate training objective~ are determined and usedby the trainer to prepare and(c6nduct the training whichenables soldiers to perform the ,commander's objectives. 1 In essence, i ntermed i ate obje:c't iyes become your means to insure a soldier is capable of meeting established standards of performance. · · · 8. Q, What is the key to conducting collective trai.ning? A. The objective. 9. Q. In collective training, insure soldiers can performcritical individual and subunit tasks. Consider the 124 following: is usually attained A. The collective training objective through successful performance of individual tasks. Trainers must insure that individuals can perform the tasks required to accomplish the commander's training objective. These critical tasks can be categorized as those performed by the leader, those performed by other members of the unit, and those performed by subunits. 10. Q. What are the three types of collective training? A. (1) Equipment-oriented (2) Tactical (3) Army Training and Evaluation Program (ARTEP) 11. Q. What question should you ask yourself when you are considering preparing to train your soldiers? A. "Does this training really prepare my soldiers to do their jobs." 12. ADVANTAGES OF PERFORMANCE-ORIENTED TRAINING: Training Objectives are Clear and Explicit-By having precise training objectives, the trainers and the soldiers being trained share an understandable, common focus for their This reduces to a minimum the varied, occasionally efforts.conflicting interpretations which arise when terms such as "proficiency," "familiarity," and "working knowledge" are used to describe the desired results of training. Training Resources are Employed Efficiently-Because training objectives are written in precise, measurable terms, the trainers and those they train understand exactly what their training is designed to do. Thus, training resources (human, physical, and time) necessary to accomplish each training objective can be more accurately estimated and planned for. This factor becomes increasingly important as you prepare training, request training aids and devices, write lesson outlines and conduct rehearsals. Training is soldier-Oriented Rather than Trainer-Oriented -In performance-oriented training, soldiers perform job/duty related tasks under the conditions specified until they demonstrate the level of proficiency established by the training ·standards. Those personnel who quickly master a particular training objective can be shifted to help slower learners (a form of peer instruction) or continue their own skill development in other areas. The training focuses toward so1d i er performance rather than a trainer's abi 1i ty to present instruction. 125 UNIFORM CODE OF MILITARY JUSTICE (UCMJ) Reference: AR 27-10 1 • 0. Who may impo~e nonjudicial punishment? A. Any commissioned or warrant officer who holds the titleof commanding officer. 2 . Q. Why would a commanding officer suspend all or part ofthe punishment imposed under Article 15, for a specifiedperiod of time? A. To grant a probationary period during which a servicemember may show that he is deserving of remission of thesuspended portion of the punishment. 3 . Q. What is a reprimand? A. A reprimand is an act of formal censure which reprovesor rebukes the offender for his/her misconduct. 4. Q. A Field Grade Commander can impose up to 30 dayscorrectional custody under provisions of Article 15.Who must approve the imposition of that punishment? A. General Courts Martial Authority. 5 . Q. An Article 15 procedure begins with the commander advising the accused of the specific charge and orhis/her sever-al rights. Name at least four of theserights. A. Article 31 rights against self-incrimination Consultation with an attorney Having a spokesperson present case Present matters in defense, mitigation and extenuationDemand trial bY courts martial Request an open hearing. 6 . Q. What does admonition mean? A. It is a warning, reminder, or reproof given to deterrepetition by the offender of the type of misconductwhich resulted in the admonition and to advise him/herof the consequences in the event of recurrence of thatmisconduct. 7. Q. Who is exempt from correctional custody and confinementon bread and water? A. Pay grade of E-4 and above and female enlisted personnel. 8. Q. A staff sergeant tells you that his commander has offeredhim an Article 15. He also tells you that the commander stated that his punishment, if he accepts, will be 14days extra duty cleaning all the latrines in thebarracks. What are two errors made by the commander inthis case. 126 A. The commander shou1d not announce p 1 anned punishment prior to the decision to accept the Article 15. Additiona 11 y, the extra duty as stated above is not appropriate to the rank of the individual. 9 . Q. Can punishment under Article 15 be imposed while a demand for trial is in effect? A. No. 10 . Q. Who may act on an appeal under Article 15? A. The court martial authority next superior to the officer who imposed the punishment. 11 . Q. What is mitigation? A. Mitigation is a reduction in either quantity or quality of a punishment, its general nature remaining the same. 12. Q. How do you define remission? A. The action whereby any portion of the unexecuted punishment is canceled. 13 . Q. Must an officer have a written order to arrest a soldier? A. No -The officer need only to notify the soldier that (s)he is ordered into arrest and inform him/her of the limits of the arrest. 14. Q. Does an i nd i vi dua1 have the right to contact a 1 awye r and receive legal advice prior to deciding whether to accept punishment under the provisions of Article 15? A. Yes. 15. Q. What grades can a commanding officer reduce under Article 15? A. Only grades that (s)he is authorized to promote. 16. Q. What does apprehension mean? A. The taking into custody of a person. 17. Q. What are the types of courts-martial found in the Army? A. Summary, Special, and General 18. Q. Can a noncommissioned officer be reduced to a specialist grade under Article 15? A. Yes-Can be reduced to a specialist rank of lower grade provided the latter grade is authorized in the PMOS of the individual. 19. Q. Can a c i vi 1 ian 1awyer defend an accused in a court martial? A. Yes Provided the lawyer meets the requirements specified in current Army regulations and the UCMJ and is paid by the accused. 127 20. 0. Can a noncommissioned officer administer an Article 15 to an enlisted soldier? A. No. 21. Q. A company grade commander may reduce an E-4 to what grade? A. E-3. (one grade). 22. Q. What title is given to the mi 1itary equivalent of the prosecuting attorney in a civil court? A. Trial counsel. 23. Q. What duties can an officer on arrest in quarters be allowed to performed? A. Any military duty not involving the exercise of command. If a commissioned or warrant officer on arrest in quarters is placed on duty involving the exercise of command by an authority having knowledge of the status of arrest in quarters, that status is thereby terminated. 24. Q. Can an enlisted soldier be a member of a court-martial board? A. Yes If requested in writing by the accused. The en 1i sted member serving on the court-marti a 1 board cannot be assigned to the same unit as the accused. 25. Q. Do you, as the accused, have the right to be representedby a military attornay of your choice? A. Yes If the attorney has been determined to be reasonably available. 26. Q. If an individual is given extra duty and/or restricticn under the provisions of Article 15 and then appeals the punishment, when does the restriction and e_xtra duty start? A. The restriction and extra duty are stayed (do not take effect) until completion of the appeal. 27. Q. What is suspension as defined by the manual for courtsmartial? A. The action taken to grant to a deserving ·member a probational period during which (s)he may show that (s)heis deserving of remission of the suspended portion of the nonjudicial punishm~nt imposed. 28. Q. What is the time limit in which an appeal may be made? A. AR 27-10 states that appeals must be made within a reasonable time under normal circumstances not later than 15 days after the punishment was imposed. 29. Q. A general courts-martial must consist of a military judgeand how many members? 128 A. A general courts-martial will consist of at least five members, un 1ess the accused requests tria1 by judge alone. 30. Q. When an i nd i vi dua1 requests that en 1 i sted personne 1 be inc1uded at his courts-marti a1 , what portion of the courts-martial board must be enlisted? A. When requested by the en 1 i sted accused, at 1east onethird of the board must be composed of enlisted persons, unless the convening authorities directed that the trial proceed in the absence of enlisted members. 31. Q. Can a commanding officer impose nonjudicial punishment on a member of his command who has departed? A. No. 32. Q. What is the purpose of nonjudicial punishment? A. To correct, educate, and reform offenders. To preserve an offender's record of service. Further military efficiency by disposing of minor infractions in a manner requiring less time and personnel than trial by courts-martial. 33. Q. According to the manual for courts-martial, what is the difference between arrest and confinement? A. Arrest is the restraint of a person by an order directing him/her to remain within certain specified limits; confinement is the physical restraint of a person. 34. Q. What is the alternative to an Article 15? A. A request for courts-martial. 35. Q. When punishment is administered under Article 15, on what date does the punishment become effective? · A. On the date punishment is imposed, un 1ess otherwise prescribed by the officer imposing the punishment. 36. Q. What 4 types of punishment can a company commander impose on an E-4 under Article 15i A. Extra duty Reduction in grade Restriction Forfeiture or detention of pay 37. Q. Who can impose correctional custody? A. Correctional custody may be imposed only by an officer exercising General courts-martial jurisdiction, a general officer in command, or by a subordinate commander who has been granted this authority by an officer exercising General courts-martial jurisdiction or a general officer in command. 129 38. Q. What is the highest military made? court to which appeals are A. The court of military appeals. (This court is comprisedof three judges and has the final authority in cases of law involving courts-martial). 39. Q. What action may you take if spe6ial courts-martial board of the board members? you and are you being tried by a disapprove of one A. You may challenge this individual and have him removed. WEAPONS-HAND GRENADES Reference: FM 23-30 1 • Q. A. The hand grenade assists accomplishing six missions; (1) Producing casualties the what individual are they? soldier in (2) Signaling (3) Screening (4) Illuminating (5) (6) Producing incendiary effects Riot control 2 . Q. All hand they? grenades share three characteristics; what are A. (1) Relatively infantry weapons short range in comparison to other (2) (3) Small effective casualty producing radius Incorporate a delay element to permit safe throwing 3. Q. A. What are ( 1 ) body the main parts of the hand grenade? (2) filler (3) fuse assembly 4. Q. The fuse assembly is the heart of causes the grenade to function. the hand grenade and What actions centro1 the chain reaction of the fuze? A. Pyrotechnic, me2hanical,, and electrical actions. i: : 5. Q. A. What are two categorie~ of US Detonating and ~gnitin~. · hand grenade fuzes? 6 . Q. A. What the delay of a.fragmentation hand grenade after the striker ignites,:the del1,ay element, to the explosion?4 to 5 seconds.' · 7. Q. A. What is the effective M26 fragmentation hand 15 meters. ca'sualty producing grenade? radius of the 130 8. Q. What is the weight of the M26 fragmentation hand grenade? A. 16 ounces. 9. Q. What is the color of the body of the M26 fragmentation hand grenade? A. An olive drab body with a single yellow band at the top and yellow markings. 10. Q. How many different types of fragmentation hand grenades are there? A. There are five: the M26, M56, M57, M33, and M59. 11 . Q. Pr i mar i 1 y, what are chemica1 smoke hand grenades used for? A. For signaling and screening. 12. Q. What is the white phosphorous smoke hand grenade used for? A. For signaling, screening, incendiary missions, and for producing casualties. 13. Q. What is the white smoke hand grenade used for? A. It is used to produce dense clouds of white smoke for signaling and screening. 14. Q. What are riot control hand grenades used for? ,...,• For aiding in quelling civi 1 disturbances, prisoner of war riots, and similar disorders. 15. Q. There are three types of riot control agents available in hand grenade form; what are they? A. CN, CS, and OM. 16. Q. What is the CN riot control agent? A. It is commonly known as "tear gas." The effects of CN are a stinging sensation of the eyes and a continuous flow of tears. 1 7. Q. What is the DM riot control agent? A. It is a vomiting agent, often called "adamsite," produces nausea and vomiting and normally is used in hand grenades in combination with other agents. 18. Q. What is the cs riot control agent? A. It is the most powerful of the riot control agents. It produces the same effects as CS and adds i nvo 1untary closing of the eyes, nasal drip, severe coughing, tightness of the chest, extreme difficulty in breathing, and a stinging sensation on moist areas of the skin. 19. Q. What is the TH3 incendiary hand grenade used for? A. It is used to destroy equipment. 1 31 1 • 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9 . • MACHINE GUN, M-60 Reference: FM 23-67 Q. Describe the M60 machine gun? A. It is an air-cooled, belt-fed, gas-operated, automatic weapon. Q. Describe the sights of the M60? A. The front sight is permanently affixed to the barrel. The rear. sight leaf is mounted on a spring type dovetail base. It can be folded forward to the horizontal when the gun is to be moved. Q. How is the rear sight graduated for range changes? A. The range plate on the sight leaf is marked ch 100 meters, from 300 meters, to the maximum effective range of 1,100 meters. Q. Where is the safety located for the M60 machine gun? A. It is located on the left side of the trigger housing. Q. What are they types of ammunition that can be used with the machine gun? A. Ball type, trC).cer, armor piercing, armor piercingincendiary, blarik, and dummy. GENERAL DATA: Ammunition-7.62 MM Length of gun -43 1/2 inches Weight of gun -23 pounds Maximum range-3,725 meters Maximum effective range-1,100 meters Rates of fire: Sustained -1 00 rounds per minute (change barrel every10 minutes) Rapid -200 rounds per minute (change barrel every 2 1 minutes) •· Cyclic-Approximately ' 550 rounds per minute (change barrel every one minute) Q. What is the nomenclature for the tripod mount? A. M122. Q. What are the two most common malfunctions of the M60? A. Sluggish operation and runaway gun. Q. What is the co1or of the tip of a tracer round of ammunition? A. Orange 132 1r·'-'. Q. What is the color of the tip of an armor piercing round? A. Black 11 . Q. What is the color of the tip of an armor piercing incendiary round? A. Aluminum. 12. Q. What are the two types of assembly and di sassemb1 y of the M60? A. General and detailed. 13. Q. How many major groups does the M60 machine gun break down into? A. 6 groups. 14. Q. Name the six major groups of the M60. A. The stock group, the buffer group, operating group, trigger housing group, barrel group, and the receiver group. 15. Q. Name the three ways to stop a runaway machine gun? A. (1) raising the cover, thus stopping the feeding action (2) twisting or breaking the belt to stop the feeding (3) grasping the cocking handle firmly and pulling it to the rear to stop the bolt from going forward 16. Q. What is meant by immediate action? A. Immediate action is the action taken to reduce the ~toppage without investigating the cause. 17. Q• What is the basic load of ammunition? A. . Crewman carries 600 to 900 rounds and the gunner carries three 100-round bandoleers. 18. Q, What is a malfunction? A. It is a failure of the gun to function satisfactorily. Defective ammunition or improper operation of the gun by a crew member is not considered a malfunction of the gun. 19. Q. What is a stoppage? A. A stoppage is any interruption of the cycle of functioning caused by faulty action of the gun or ammunition. PISTOL, .45 Cal Reference: FM 23-35 1 • Q. What is the nomenclature of the .45 caliber pistol? A. M1911A1. 133 2. 4. 5 . 6 . 7. 8. 9. 10. 1 1 • Q. Describe the .45 caliber pistol? A. It is a semiautomatic, recoil operated, maga::~ne-fed, hand weapon. The energy needed to operate the pisto1 comes from the recoil created by the rearward force of expanding powder gases of the fired round. Q. How many rounds can the magazine hold? A. Seven. GENERAL DATA: Diameter of bore ...................................0. 45 inches Number of 1ands and grooves ..................................6 Length of barre1 ..............•.••.•.....•..••..•.. 5. 03 inches Rifling, left r-,and, one turn in ...................... 16 inches Length overall ....................................3 5/8 inches Weight: with empty magazine ........................•...... 2. 4 pounds with 1oaded magazine .........................3 pounds approx Height of front sight above axis of bore .........0.5597 inches Si ghtradi us ......................................6. 481 inches Chamberpressure .................................... 1 7, OOOPSI Muzzle velocity (maximum) ..............................830 FPS Maxi mumrange ...................................... ~ 500meters Maxi mum effective range ..............................50 meters Trigger pull ....................................5-6 1/2 pounds Q. What is the.function cycle or cycle of operation? A. It is each time a cartridge is fired, the parts inside the pistol function in a given order. Q. What are the eight steps in the cycle of operation? A. They are feeding, chambering, locking, firing, unlocking,extracting, ejecting, and cocking. Q. How many safety devices does the .45 caliber pistol have? A. Three. Q. What are the three safety devices? A. They are the grip safety, safety lock, and the half cock notch on the hammer. Q. What is a malfunction? A. A rna 1function is a fa i 1ure of the weapon to function properly. Q. What is a stoppage? A. A stoppage is an unintentional interruption in the cycle of operation. Q. What is meant by immediate action? A. It is ~he prompt action taken by the firer to reduce a stoppage. 134 12. 13. 14. 15. 1 • 2. 3. 0. How many types of ammunition are available and what are they called? A. There are five. They are b a 1 1 , b1ank , dummy , trace,-, and high density shot. Q. What is a hangfire? A. It is a delay in the functioning of the propelling charge or explosive train. 0. How many seconds should a person wait befcre pulling the slide to the rear after a hangfire? A. Approximately 10 seconds. Q. The e 1ements of marksmanship ar-e the fundamentals ::;f quick fire. What are they? A. They are ( 1) hand and eye coordination, (2) grip, (3) positions, (4) trigger control, and (5) target engagement. RIFLE, M16A1 Reference: FM 22-9 0. Describe the M16A1 rifle. A. The M16A1 rifle is a 5.56 MM, magazine fed, gas operated, shoulder weapon, It is designed for automatic or semiautomatic fire through the use of a selector switch. General data of the M16A1 rifle: a. Rifle without magazine and sling -2.95 kg or 6.50 pa~nds b. Empty magazine (aluminum)-20 rounds 1s .09 kg cr .20 pounds. A 30 round magazine is .11 kg or .25 pounds. c. Full magazine -20 rounds is 32 kg or . 70 pounds. A 30 round magazine is ·.46 kg or 1.01 pounds. d. Sling, M1 -is .18 kg or .40 pounds e. Firing weight (with sling and loaded magazine) -20 rounds 3.45 kg or 7.60 pounds. 30 rounds is 3.60 kg cr 7.91 pounds f. Bipod, M3 -is .27 kg or .60 pounds g. Bipod case-is, .09 kg or .20 pounds h. Bayonet knife, M7 -is .27 kg or .60 pounds. i. Scabbard, MSA1 -is .14 kg or .30 pounds. Length of weapon and parts: a. Rifle with bayonet knife, M7 -is 112.40 em or 44.25 inches. b. Rifle overall with flash suppressor-is 99.06 em or 39.00 inches. c. Barrel with flash suppressor-is 53.34 em or 21.00 inches. d. Barrel without flash suppressor -is 41.80 em or 20.00 inches. 135 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. Description of sights: a. Front: Adjustable click-type post. Each click equals 2.8 em (1 .1 inches) per every 100 meters of range. b. Rear: adjustable, flip type. Normal range setting is from 0 to 300 meters; long-range setting (L), 300 to 460 meters. Each notch of the windage drum equals 2.8 em (1 .1 inches) per every 100 meters of range. On a weapon set for battlesight zero of 250 meters flip to long range aperture; weapon is then zeroed for 290 to 375 meters. c. Sight radius: 50.27 em (9.75 inches). Description of ammunition: a. Caliber 5.56 MM, M193 (complete round) is 79 grains. b. Projectile is 55 grains. c. Types: Ball, tracer, blank, dummy. d. Recommended minimum basic load (30 round magazine) is 210 rounds. Operational characteristics of the M16A1: a. Muzzle velocity in meters per second (feet per second·) 990.85 meters per second (~250 fps approximately). b. Muzzle energy (at the muzzle) 1300 foot pounds (approximately). c. Cyclic rate of fire: 700 to 800 rounds per minute. d. Maximum effective rate of fire: (1) S~miautomatic: 45 to 65 rounds per minute. (2) Automatic: 150 to 260 rounds per minute. (3) Sustained rate of fiGe: 12 to 15 rounds per minute. e. Maximum range: 2653 meters. f. Maximum effective range: ~60 meters Definitions of terms used in;the description: a. CYCLIC RATE OF FIRE: The rate at which a weapon fires automatically. i b. SUSTAINED RATE OF FIRE: 1 ~ctual rate of fire that a weapon can continue to deliver for an indefinite length of time without serious 1 y overheat:i ng. c. MAXIMUM EFFECTIVE RATE o~: ~IRE: The rate of fire that can be maintained without da~gSr to the firer or the weapon. I ~ I i' 0 d. MAXIMUM RANGE: The greate~t d1stance that a weapon can fire. ' I e. MAXIMUM EFFECTIVE RANGE:i ~he. greatest distance .at ~hich a weapon may be expected tb f1re accurately to 1nfl1ct casua1ties or damage. 1' ,1 I ,I Q. What is the nomencJature bf the M16At grenade launcher? A. M203. ! 9. Q. What is preventive maintenance? A. It is the systematic care, inspection, and servicing of equipment to keep it in a serviceable condition to prevent breakdowns and assure maximum operational readiness. 10. Q. Where is the maintenance equipment for the M16A1 rifle stored? A. In the butt of the weapon. 11. Q. What is a stoppage? A. It is a failure of an automatic or semiautomatic firearm to extract or eject a spent case or to load or fire a new round. Immediate or remedial action must be taken to clear the stoppage. 12. Q. What is referred to an immediate action? A. Immediate action is the unhesitating application of a probable remedy to reduce a stoppage without investigating the cause. 13. Q. What is remedial action? A. When the application of immediate action fails to reduce the stoppage, remedial action must be applied. Remedial action is the continuing effort to determine the cause for a stoppage, apply a remedy to clear the stoppage once it has been· identified, and return the weapon tc operation. 14. Q. What is a malfunction? A. A malfunction is an unplanned cessation of fire due to a stoppage caused by a mechanical failure of the weapon, magazine, or ammunition. 1 5 . Q. How is M16A1 tracer ammunition identified? A. It is identified by an orange painted tip. 1 6 . Q. How is M16A1 dummy ammunition identified? A. It is identified by six lengthwise corrugations in the case. 1 7 . Q. How is blank ammunition identified? A. It is identified by the grooves along the side of the case beginning approximately 1/2 inch from its head. The case mouth is closed with a seven -petal rosette crimp and shows a violet tip. ,, I II 1 8 • Q. One of the rear sight, the aperture marked ~ is used for what purpose? A. For ranges beyond 300 meters. 19. Q. Current doctrine of the US Army prescribed a battlesight zero at what range? 137 A. At 250 meters. 20. Q. Name the various positions for firing on a train fire course? A. (1) Prone unsupported position. (2) Prone supported position. (3) Sitting unsupported position. (4) Squatting unsupported position. (5) Kneeling unsupported position. (6) Kneeling supported position. (7) Forearm position. (8) Standing unsupported position. 21 . Q. What is the purpose of target detection? A. To provide the soldier with the opportunity to practice detecting hidden and partially hidden targets in their natural surroundings. 22. Q. What is the purpose of zeroing your rifle? A. To determine its battlesight setting. 23. Q. Name the eight steady hold factors for the rifle? A. (1) Left arm and hand (2) Butt in pocket of shoulder (3) Grip of right hand (4) Right elbow (5) Spot weld (6) Breathing (7) Relaxation (8) Trigger-squeeze ')A Q. How many rifle teams compose a rifle squad? "-'+• A. Two: they are alfa and bravo. 25. Q. What is the alfa team position in combat and in training unless otherwise specified? A. The alfa team leads and is always on the right. 26. ,--. Name the three rifle squad formations? "'· A. They are column, file, and line. 27. Q. What is the primary formation for mo~ement of a rifle squad? A. Squad ·::o 1 umn. 28. Q. When is squad column with fire teams abreast used? A. It is used for movements in areas where maneuvers of the fire team is restricted. Most frequently used in an approach march along a road. 29. Q. When is squad file used? A. When moving over terrain which is so restrictive the squad cannot adopt a column formation, or when 138 visibility is so reduced that control becomes extremely difficult. WHAT COMMANDERS HAVE A RIGHT TO EXPECT FROM THEIR SOLDIERS: 1. A positive, can-do attitude. 2. Loyalty to one's unit. 3. Willing self-discipline manifested by appropriate standards of appearance, job performance, and military courtesy. 4. Maintenance of healthy mind and body. 5. Proficiency in one's job and pride in that proficiency. 6. Willingness to learn new skills. 7. Personal integrity. B. Moral and physical courage. 9. Dependabi 1i ty. 10. Willingness to get along, to live in harmony with other soldiers. 11. Unselfishness as manifested by a desire to help others and to forego one's personal needs for the greater needs of the group. 12. Use of the chain-of-command to resolve problems and difficu1ties. WHAT SOLDIERS HAVE A RIGHT TO EXPECT FROM THEIR COMMANDERS: 1. Honest, just and fair treatment. 2. Consideration due them as mature, professional soldiers. 3. Personal interest taken in them as individuals. 4. Loyalty 5. Shielding from harassment from "higher up". 6. The best in leadership. 139 7 . Their needs to be anticipated and provided for. • 8. All the comforts and privileges practicable. 9. To be kept oriented and told the "reason why". 10. A good program of training, work, and recreation. 11. Clear cut and positive decisions and orders which are not constantly changing. 12. Demands on them commensurate with their capabilities, not too small and not too great. 13. Recognition and credit for their good work and public praisewhere appropriate. 14. Personal integrity. 15. Unselfish concern for the well-being of the soldier. 140 *U.S. GOVERNMEHT PRINTING OFFICE: 1989 676·579/05115